There are 52 clinical trials
The purpose of this study is to find out whether a drug called PDR001, combined with either trametinib or dabrafenib, is a safe and effective treatment for thyroid cancer.
V600E, V600K, V600D). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: The primary endpoint is to determine the overall response rate (ORR=CR+PR) as documented by RECIST v1.1 criteria within each cohort.
Measure: Overall response rate Time: 1 yearThis is a two-arm, open-label, randomized Phase III study comparing single agent GSK1120212 to chemotherapy (either dacarbazine or paclitaxel) in subjects with Stage IIIc or Stage IV malignant cutaneous melanoma. All subjects must have a BRAF mutation-positive tumour sample. Subjects who have received up to one prior regimen of chemotherapy in the advanced or metastatic melanoma setting will be enrolled into the study. Subjects with any prior BRAF or MEK inhibitor use will be excluded. Approximately 297 subjects will be enrolled with 2:1 randomization (198 subjects into the GSK1120212 arm and 99 subjects into the chemotherapy arm). The primary endpoint for the statistical analysis will be a comparison of progression free survival for subjects receiving GSK1120212 compared to chemotherapy. Subjects who have progression on chemotherapy will be offered the option to receive GSK1120212.
Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or partial response (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) evaluated by the Investigator per RECIST, Version 1.1.. Number of BRAF V600K Mutation-positive Participants Classified as Confirmed Responders (CR and PR) as Assessed by the Investigator. --- V600K ---
Description: Progression-free survival (PFS) is defined as the time from randomization to the first documented occurrence of disease progression (PD) or death. PFS for investigator-assessed and blinded, independent, central review committee (BRIC)-assessed responses was summarized per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST), Version 1.1, which is a set of published rules defining when cancer participants improve (respond), stay the same (stabilize), or worsen (progress) during treatment. Disease progression is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 millimeters (mm) or the appearance of at least 1 new lesion, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. Primary Efficacy Population included all participants with BRAF V600E mutation-positive melanoma without a history of brain metastases.
Measure: Progression-free Survival in BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a History of Brain Metastases as Assessed by the Investigator and Independent Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the first documented occurrence of PD or death. Investigator-assessed and BRIC-assessed PFS were summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. Intend-To-Treat (ITT) Population included all randomized participants regardless of whether or not treatment was administered.
Measure: Progression-free Survival in All Participants Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the first documented occurrence of PD or death. Investigator-assessed PFS was summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation.
Measure: PFS in BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a History of Brain Metastases and Without Prior Chemotherapy as Assessed by the Investigator Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the first documented occurrence of PD or death. Investigator-assessed PFS was summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation.
Measure: PFS in BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a History of Brain Metastases and With Prior Chemotherapy as Assessed by the Investigator Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: Overall survival was defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of death due to any cause.
Measure: Overall Survival in All Participants Time: Day 1 until death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: Overall survival was defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of death due to any cause. NA indicates data was not available.
Measure: Overall Survival in BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a History of Brain Metastases Time: Day 1 until death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants with evidence of complete response (CR; disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or partial response (PR: at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) evaluated by the Investigator and an independent review per RECIST, Version 1.1.
Measure: Number of BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a History of Brain Metastases With Overall Response (OR) as Assessed by the Investigator and Independent Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants with evidence of complete response (disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or partial response (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) evaluated by the Investigator and an independent review per RECIST, Version 1.1.
Measure: Number of Participants With OR as Assessed by the Investigator and Independent Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants with evidence of complete response (disappearance of all extranodal lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or partial response (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) evaluated by the Investigator per RECIST, Version 1.1.
Measure: Number of BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Classified as Confirmed Responders (CR and PR) as Assessed by the Investigator Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants with evidence of complete response (CR; disappearance of all extranodal lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or partial response (PR: at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) evaluated by the Investigator per RECIST, Version 1.1.
Measure: Number of BRAF V600K Mutation-positive Participants Classified as Confirmed Responders (CR and PR) as Assessed by the Investigator Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants with evidence of CR (disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 millimeters in the short axis) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) evaluated by the Investigator in participants following cross-over to Trametinib. The evaluation was carried out by the Investigator per RECIST, Version 1.1. Cross-over Population included the subset of participants who were randomized to CT and who elected to cross-over to Trametinib following disease progression on CT. Only participants who received at least one dose of Trametinib were included in this population.
Measure: Number of Participants With OR Following Cross-over to Trametinib Time: Day 1 of cross-over therapy until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 18.3 months)Description: DoR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of CR (disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) until PD (at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation) or death due to any cause. DoR for the investigator-assessed (INVA) response data were summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. Only those participants with confirmed response (CR and PR) were analyzed. Only those participants with data available at the specified time points were analyzed (represented by n=X in the category titles). NA indicates data was not available.
Measure: Duration of Response (DoR) for All BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a Prior History of Brain Metastases Classified as Confirmed Responders (CR or PR) as Assessed by the Investigator Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: DoR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of CR (disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) until PD (at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation) or death due to any cause. DoR for the independently-assessed (INDA) response data were summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. Only those participants with confirmed response (CR and PR) were analyzed. Only those participants with data available at the specified time points were analyzed (represented by n=X in the category titles). NA indicates data was not available.
Measure: DoR for All BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Participants Without a Prior History of Brain Metastases Classified as Confirmed Responders (CR or PR) as Assessed by the Independent Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: DoR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of CR (disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) until PD or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. DoR for the INVA response data was summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. Only those participants with confirmed response (CR and PR) were analyzed. Only those participants with data available at the specified time points were analyzed (represented by n=X in the category titles). NA indicates data was not available.
Measure: DoR for All Confirmed Responders (CR or PR) as Assessed by the Investigator Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: DoR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of CR (disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) until PD or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. DoR for the INDA response data was summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. Only those participants with confirmed response (CR and PR) were analyzed. Only those participants with data available at the specified time points were analyzed (represented by n=X in the category titles). NA indicates data was not available.
Measure: DoR for All Confirmed Responders (CR or PR) as Assessed by the Independent Review Time: Day 1 until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 20.3 months)Description: DoR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of CR (disappearance of all extra nodal lesions. Any pathological lymph node must be less than 10 mm in the short axis) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions) until PD or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. DoR data were summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1Only those participants with confirmed response (CR and PR) were analyzed. Only those participants with data available at the specified time points were analyzed (represented by n=X in the category titles). NA indicates data was not available.
Measure: DoR for All Responders (CR or PR) Following Cross-over to Trametinib as Assessed by the Investigator Time: Day 1 of cross-over therapy until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 18.3 months)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the first dose of cross-over therapy to the first documented occurrence of PD or death. PFS was summarized per RECIST, Version 1.1. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5 mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non-target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation.
Measure: PFS Following Cross-over to Trametinib as Assessed by the Investigator Time: Day 1 of cross-over therapy until the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 18.3 months)This study aims to determine which of 3 drug combinations best reduces the size of tumour prior to surgery for advanced melanoma and prevents the recurrence of melanoma after surgery.
V600D, V600K, V600R, V600M). --- V600D --- --- V600K ---
Description: Proportion of patients with complete absence of residual melanoma cells in the planned resected tumour site(s) at week 6 surgery.
Measure: Pathological response rate Time: From baseline to 6 weeksDescription: Proportion of patients with complete and partial responses at 6 weeks compared to baseline per RECIST guidelines for each treatment arm.
Measure: Objective clinical (RECIST) response rate Time: From baseline to 6 weeksDescription: The amount of time that patients are disease free from the time of surgery at 6 weeks from study entry
Measure: Relapse free survival Time: 5 yearsDescription: The proportion of patients who are alive from the time of study entry
Measure: Overall survival Time: 5 yearsDescription: The number of patients (and the number of episodes) who develop a post operative infection of the surgical wound requiring intravenous antibiotics and/or wound drainage
Measure: Incidence of post operative infection Time: 6 weeksDescription: The number of patients (and the number of episodes) who develop a seroma at the surgical site that requires any intervention and the volume of seroma drainage
Measure: Incidence of post operative seroma formation Time: 6 weeksDescription: The number of days that a wound drain remains in situ from the time of surgery
Measure: Duration of post operative wound drainage time Time: 6 weeksDescription: The number of patients (and the number of episodes) who have a bleed from the post operative surgical wound that requires a blood transfusion or return to theatre to stop the bleeding
Measure: Incidence of post operative bleeding requiring return to theatre or transfusion Time: 6 weeksDescription: The change, if any, in the surgeon's assessment of 'operability' from baseline opinion (based on clinical and imaging examination) to time of operation
Measure: Comparison of surgeon's opinion of operability evaluated at baseline to time of surgery Time: Baseline and 6 weeksDescription: The number of study treatment related adverse events of all Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) grades from the time of starting study treatment to the time of permanent discontinuation of study treatment
Measure: Incidence of any treatment-emergent adverse events Time: 52 weeksDescription: The effects of study treatment on the body's immune cells within the tumour tissue prior to surgery
Measure: Characterisation of the immunophenotype of tumour infiltrating cells in melanoma tissue Time: Baseline, Week 1, Week 2, Week 6Description: The effects of study treatment on the degree of necrosis and genetic markers in tumour tissue prior to surgery
Measure: Description of the morphological assessment of melanoma tissue Time: Baseline, Week 1, Week 2, Week 6Description: The effects of study treatment on the baseline function of RNA expression in tumour tissue prior to surgery
Measure: Description of the RNA expression profile of melanoma tumour Time: Baseline, Week 1, Week 2, Week 6Description: The effects of study treatment on the number and type of white cells in the blood
Measure: Measurement of leucocyte subpopulations in peripheral blood Time: Baseline, Week 1, Week 2, Week 6Description: The levels of melanoma DNA that is circulating in the blood stream and the changes during study treatment
Measure: Measurement of circulating tumour DNA Time: Baseline, Week 1, Week 2, Week 6Description: The activity of melanoma tissue assessed by the uptake of fludeoxyglucose (18F) in tumour cells viewed using positron emission tomography (PET) and how well this corresponds to the findings from the pathological examination of completely excised tumour tissue
Measure: Concordance of metabolic response measured by pathological response Time: 6 weeksDescription: The activity of melanoma tissue assessed by the uptake of fludeoxyglucose (18F) in tumour cells viewed using positron emission tomography (PET) and how well this corresponds to the assessment of tumour size and extent using computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging scans
Measure: Concordance of metabolic response measured by RECIST response Time: 52 weeksDescription: he findings from the pathological examination of completely excised tumour tissue and how well this corresponds to the assessment of tumour size and extent using computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging scans
Measure: Concordance of pathological response measured by RECIST response Time: 6 weeksDescription: The activity of recurrent melanoma tissue assessed by the uptake of fludeoxyglucose (18F) in tumour cells viewed using positron emission tomography (PET) and how well this corresponds to the assessment of tumour size and extent using computed tomography and magnetic resonance imaging scans
Measure: Concordance of metabolic response with RECIST response at relapse Time: 52 weeksDescription: The application of two different criterion to establish the tumour burden as assessed with computed tomorgraphy and magnetic resonanse imaging
Measure: Concordance of immune related response criteria (irRC) with RECIST response Time: Weeks 6 and 52Description: Characterisation of the bacterial diversity and composition in stool samples at baseline, prior to surgery at week 6, week 24 and at relapse.
Measure: Correlation of the gut microbiome with RECIST response to immunotherapy. Time: Baseline, Week 6, week 24, at relapse if this occurs within 5 years from study entryDescription: Diet plays a significant role in shaping the intestinal microbiome. Nutrition may influence the gut microbiome and response to immunotherapy.
Measure: Characterisation of self-reported dietary habits (including use of oral probiotics) and correlation with the gut microbiome. Time: BaselineThis phase II trial is studying how well MEK inhibitor AZD6244 works in treating patients with stage III or stage IV melanoma. MEK inhibitor AZD6244 may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth.
Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed melanoma - Stage IV or stage III disease not potentially curable with surgery - Documented tumor progression - Must have a V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated tumor, or a NRAS mutation at condons 12, 13, or 61 - Measurable disease, defined as ≥ 1 unidimensionally measurable lesion ≥ 20 mm by conventional techniques or ≥ 10 mm by spiral CT scan - Must have tumor tissue (block or unstained slides) available for IHC studies - No primary uveal or mucosal melanoma - No active or untreated brain metastases - Treated brain metastases allowed provided they have been stable for ≥ 3 months - ECOG performance status 0-1 - Life expectancy > 3 months - WBC ≥ 3,000/mcL - Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL - Platelet count ≥ 100,000/mcL - Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL (no requirement for transfusions within the past 2 weeks) - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN) - AST/ALT ≤ 2.5 times ULN - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL - Not pregnant or nursing - Negative pregnancy test - Fertile patients must use effective contraception during and for 16 weeks after completion of study treatment - No refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal disease (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease), or significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption - No concurrent uncontrolled illness, including, but not limited to, any of the following: - Ongoing or active infection or bleeding - Symptomatic congestive heart failure - Unstable angina pectoris - Cardiac arrhythmia - Psychiatric illness/social situation that would limit compliance with study requirements - No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MEK inhibitor AZD6244 - Any number of prior therapies allowed - At least 4 weeks since prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) and recovered - At least 4 months since prior anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody therapy - At least 4 weeks since other prior systemic therapy - No other concurrent investigational agents - No concurrent antiretroviral therapy for HIV-positive patients - No concurrent vitamin E supplementation or multivitamin supplements that provide a total daily dose in excess of 100% of the recommended daily dose of vitamin E - No concurrent anticancer chemotherapy or other systemic drugs - Concurrent palliative radiotherapy allowed Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed melanoma - Stage IV or stage III disease not potentially curable with surgery - Documented tumor progression - Must have a V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated tumor, or a NRAS mutation at condons 12, 13, or 61 - Measurable disease, defined as ≥ 1 unidimensionally measurable lesion ≥ 20 mm by conventional techniques or ≥ 10 mm by spiral CT scan - Must have tumor tissue (block or unstained slides) available for IHC studies - No primary uveal or mucosal melanoma - No active or untreated brain metastases - Treated brain metastases allowed provided they have been stable for ≥ 3 months - ECOG performance status 0-1 - Life expectancy > 3 months - WBC ≥ 3,000/mcL - Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL - Platelet count ≥ 100,000/mcL - Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL (no requirement for transfusions within the past 2 weeks) - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN) - AST/ALT ≤ 2.5 times ULN - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL - Not pregnant or nursing - Negative pregnancy test - Fertile patients must use effective contraception during and for 16 weeks after completion of study treatment - No refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal disease (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease), or significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption - No concurrent uncontrolled illness, including, but not limited to, any of the following: - Ongoing or active infection or bleeding - Symptomatic congestive heart failure - Unstable angina pectoris - Cardiac arrhythmia - Psychiatric illness/social situation that would limit compliance with study requirements - No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MEK inhibitor AZD6244 - Any number of prior therapies allowed - At least 4 weeks since prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) and recovered - At least 4 months since prior anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody therapy - At least 4 weeks since other prior systemic therapy - No other concurrent investigational agents - No concurrent antiretroviral therapy for HIV-positive patients - No concurrent vitamin E supplementation or multivitamin supplements that provide a total daily dose in excess of 100% of the recommended daily dose of vitamin E - No concurrent anticancer chemotherapy or other systemic drugs - Concurrent palliative radiotherapy allowed Recurrent Melanoma Stage III Skin Melanoma Stage IV Skin Melanoma Melanoma Skin Neoplasms PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. Determine the response in patients with V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated or NRAS-mutated stage III or stage IV melanoma with low or high phospho-pAKT expression treated with MEK inhibitor AZD6244. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed melanoma - Stage IV or stage III disease not potentially curable with surgery - Documented tumor progression - Must have a V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated tumor, or a NRAS mutation at condons 12, 13, or 61 - Measurable disease, defined as ≥ 1 unidimensionally measurable lesion ≥ 20 mm by conventional techniques or ≥ 10 mm by spiral CT scan - Must have tumor tissue (block or unstained slides) available for IHC studies - No primary uveal or mucosal melanoma - No active or untreated brain metastases - Treated brain metastases allowed provided they have been stable for ≥ 3 months - ECOG performance status 0-1 - Life expectancy > 3 months - WBC ≥ 3,000/mcL - Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL - Platelet count ≥ 100,000/mcL - Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL (no requirement for transfusions within the past 2 weeks) - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN) - AST/ALT ≤ 2.5 times ULN - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL - Not pregnant or nursing - Negative pregnancy test - Fertile patients must use effective contraception during and for 16 weeks after completion of study treatment - No refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal disease (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease), or significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption - No concurrent uncontrolled illness, including, but not limited to, any of the following: - Ongoing or active infection or bleeding - Symptomatic congestive heart failure - Unstable angina pectoris - Cardiac arrhythmia - Psychiatric illness/social situation that would limit compliance with study requirements - No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MEK inhibitor AZD6244 - Any number of prior therapies allowed - At least 4 weeks since prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) and recovered - At least 4 months since prior anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody therapy - At least 4 weeks since other prior systemic therapy - No other concurrent investigational agents - No concurrent antiretroviral therapy for HIV-positive patients - No concurrent vitamin E supplementation or multivitamin supplements that provide a total daily dose in excess of 100% of the recommended daily dose of vitamin E - No concurrent anticancer chemotherapy or other systemic drugs - Concurrent palliative radiotherapy allowed Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed melanoma - Stage IV or stage III disease not potentially curable with surgery - Documented tumor progression - Must have a V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated tumor, or a NRAS mutation at condons 12, 13, or 61 - Measurable disease, defined as ≥ 1 unidimensionally measurable lesion ≥ 20 mm by conventional techniques or ≥ 10 mm by spiral CT scan - Must have tumor tissue (block or unstained slides) available for IHC studies - No primary uveal or mucosal melanoma - No active or untreated brain metastases - Treated brain metastases allowed provided they have been stable for ≥ 3 months - ECOG performance status 0-1 - Life expectancy > 3 months - WBC ≥ 3,000/mcL - Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL - Platelet count ≥ 100,000/mcL - Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL (no requirement for transfusions within the past 2 weeks) - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN) - AST/ALT ≤ 2.5 times ULN - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL - Not pregnant or nursing - Negative pregnancy test - Fertile patients must use effective contraception during and for 16 weeks after completion of study treatment - No refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal disease (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease), or significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption - No concurrent uncontrolled illness, including, but not limited to, any of the following: - Ongoing or active infection or bleeding - Symptomatic congestive heart failure - Unstable angina pectoris - Cardiac arrhythmia - Psychiatric illness/social situation that would limit compliance with study requirements - No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MEK inhibitor AZD6244 - Any number of prior therapies allowed - At least 4 weeks since prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) and recovered - At least 4 months since prior anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody therapy - At least 4 weeks since other prior systemic therapy - No other concurrent investigational agents - No concurrent antiretroviral therapy for HIV-positive patients - No concurrent vitamin E supplementation or multivitamin supplements that provide a total daily dose in excess of 100% of the recommended daily dose of vitamin E - No concurrent anticancer chemotherapy or other systemic drugs - Concurrent palliative radiotherapy allowed Recurrent Melanoma Stage III Skin Melanoma Stage IV Skin Melanoma Melanoma Skin Neoplasms PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. Determine the response in patients with V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated or NRAS-mutated stage III or stage IV melanoma with low or high phospho-pAKT expression treated with MEK inhibitor AZD6244. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed melanoma - Stage IV or stage III disease not potentially curable with surgery - Documented tumor progression - Must have a V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated tumor, or a NRAS mutation at condons 12, 13, or 61 - Measurable disease, defined as ≥ 1 unidimensionally measurable lesion ≥ 20 mm by conventional techniques or ≥ 10 mm by spiral CT scan - Must have tumor tissue (block or unstained slides) available for IHC studies - No primary uveal or mucosal melanoma - No active or untreated brain metastases - Treated brain metastases allowed provided they have been stable for ≥ 3 months - ECOG performance status 0-1 - Life expectancy > 3 months - WBC ≥ 3,000/mcL - Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL - Platelet count ≥ 100,000/mcL - Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL (no requirement for transfusions within the past 2 weeks) - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN) - AST/ALT ≤ 2.5 times ULN - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL - Not pregnant or nursing - Negative pregnancy test - Fertile patients must use effective contraception during and for 16 weeks after completion of study treatment - No refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal disease (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease), or significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption - No concurrent uncontrolled illness, including, but not limited to, any of the following: - Ongoing or active infection or bleeding - Symptomatic congestive heart failure - Unstable angina pectoris - Cardiac arrhythmia - Psychiatric illness/social situation that would limit compliance with study requirements - No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MEK inhibitor AZD6244 - Any number of prior therapies allowed - At least 4 weeks since prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) and recovered - At least 4 months since prior anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody therapy - At least 4 weeks since other prior systemic therapy - No other concurrent investigational agents - No concurrent antiretroviral therapy for HIV-positive patients - No concurrent vitamin E supplementation or multivitamin supplements that provide a total daily dose in excess of 100% of the recommended daily dose of vitamin E - No concurrent anticancer chemotherapy or other systemic drugs - Concurrent palliative radiotherapy allowed Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed melanoma - Stage IV or stage III disease not potentially curable with surgery - Documented tumor progression - Must have a V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated tumor, or a NRAS mutation at condons 12, 13, or 61 - Measurable disease, defined as ≥ 1 unidimensionally measurable lesion ≥ 20 mm by conventional techniques or ≥ 10 mm by spiral CT scan - Must have tumor tissue (block or unstained slides) available for IHC studies - No primary uveal or mucosal melanoma - No active or untreated brain metastases - Treated brain metastases allowed provided they have been stable for ≥ 3 months - ECOG performance status 0-1 - Life expectancy > 3 months - WBC ≥ 3,000/mcL - Absolute neutrophil count ≥ 1,500/mcL - Platelet count ≥ 100,000/mcL - Hemoglobin ≥ 9.0 g/dL (no requirement for transfusions within the past 2 weeks) - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 times upper limit of normal (ULN) - AST/ALT ≤ 2.5 times ULN - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 mg/dL - Not pregnant or nursing - Negative pregnancy test - Fertile patients must use effective contraception during and for 16 weeks after completion of study treatment - No refractory nausea and vomiting, chronic gastrointestinal disease (e.g., inflammatory bowel disease), or significant bowel resection that would preclude adequate absorption - No concurrent uncontrolled illness, including, but not limited to, any of the following: - Ongoing or active infection or bleeding - Symptomatic congestive heart failure - Unstable angina pectoris - Cardiac arrhythmia - Psychiatric illness/social situation that would limit compliance with study requirements - No history of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to MEK inhibitor AZD6244 - Any number of prior therapies allowed - At least 4 weeks since prior radiotherapy or chemotherapy (6 weeks for nitrosoureas or mitomycin C) and recovered - At least 4 months since prior anti-CTLA4 monoclonal antibody therapy - At least 4 weeks since other prior systemic therapy - No other concurrent investigational agents - No concurrent antiretroviral therapy for HIV-positive patients - No concurrent vitamin E supplementation or multivitamin supplements that provide a total daily dose in excess of 100% of the recommended daily dose of vitamin E - No concurrent anticancer chemotherapy or other systemic drugs - Concurrent palliative radiotherapy allowed Recurrent Melanoma Stage III Skin Melanoma Stage IV Skin Melanoma Melanoma Skin Neoplasms PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. Determine the response in patients with V600E or V600K BRAF-mutated or NRAS-mutated stage III or stage IV melanoma with low or high phospho-pAKT expression treated with MEK inhibitor AZD6244. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Anti-tumor response defined as either a Complete Response, Partial Response, or Stable Disease as defined by RECIST
Measure: Anti-tumor Response Defined as Either a CR, PR, or SD as Defined by RECIST Time: Up to 4 weeksThis phase II MATCH treatment trial identifies the effects of trametinib in patients with cancer having genetic changes called BRAF mutations and fusions. Trametinib may block proteins called MEK1 and MEK2, which may be needed for growth of cancer cells that express BRAF mutations. Researchers hope to learn if giving trametinib will shrink this type of cancer or stop its growth.
MATCH Treatment Subprotocol R: Phase II Study of Trametinib in Patients With BRAF Fusions, or With NonV600E, Non-V600K BRAF Mutations. --- V600K ---
Description: ORR is defined as the percentage of patients whose tumors have a complete or partial response to treatment among eligible and treated patients. Objective response rate is defined consistent with Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1, the Cheson (2014) criteria for lymphoma patients, and the Response Assessment in Neuro-Oncology criteria for glioblastoma patients. For each treatment arm, 90% two-sided binomial exact confidence interval will be calculated for ORR.
Measure: Objective response rate (ORR) Time: Tumor assessments occurred at baseline, then every 2 cycles for the first 26 cycles and every 3 cycles thereafter until disease progression, up to 3 years post registrationDescription: OS is defined as time from treatment start date to date of death from any cause. Patients alive at the time of analysis are censored at last contact date. OS will be evaluated specifically for each drug (or step) using the Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Overall survival (OS) Time: Assessed every 3 months for =< 2 years and every 6 months for year 3Description: Progression free survival is defined as time from treatment start date to date of progression or death from any cause, whichever occurs first. PFS will be estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Progression free survival (PFS) Time: Assessed at baseline, then every 2 cycles for the first 26 cycles and every 3 cycles thereafter until disease progression, up to 3 years post registrationThis phase II MATCH treatment trial identifies the effects of trametinib and dabrafenib in patients whose cancer has genetic changes called BRAF V600 mutations. Dabrafenib may stop the growth of cancer by blocking BRAF proteins which may be needed for cell growth. Trametinib may stop the growth of cancer cells by blocking MEK proteins which, in addition to BRAF proteins, may also be needed for cell growth. Researchers hope to learn if giving trametinib with dabrafenib will shrink this type of cancer or stop its growth.
MATCH Treatment Subprotocol H: Phase II Study of Dabrafenib and Trametinib in Patients With Tumors With BRAF V600E or V600K Mutations (Excluding Melanoma, Thyroid Cancer, Colorectal Adenocarcinoma, and Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
PFS will be estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method.. Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have met applicable eligibility criteria in the Master MATCH Protocol prior to registration to treatment subprotocol - Patients must have a BRAF V600E or, V600K, V600R or V600D mutation, or another aberration, as identified via the MATCH Master Protocol - Prothrombin time (PT)/International normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.3 x institutional ULN; subjects receiving anticoagulation treatment may be allowed to participate with INR established within the therapeutic range prior to registration to treatment - Patients must have an ECHO or a nuclear study (multigated aquisition scan [MUGA] or First Pass) within 4 weeks prior to registration to treatment and must not have a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < the institutional lower limit of normal (LLN). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
However, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have met applicable eligibility criteria in the Master MATCH Protocol prior to registration to treatment subprotocol - Patients must have a BRAF V600E or, V600K, V600R or V600D mutation, or another aberration, as identified via the MATCH Master Protocol - Prothrombin time (PT)/International normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.3 x institutional ULN; subjects receiving anticoagulation treatment may be allowed to participate with INR established within the therapeutic range prior to registration to treatment - Patients must have an ECHO or a nuclear study (multigated aquisition scan [MUGA] or First Pass) within 4 weeks prior to registration to treatment and must not have a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) < the institutional lower limit of normal (LLN). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: ORR is defined as the percentage of patients whose tumors have a complete or partial response to treatment among eligible and treated patients. Objective response rate is defined consistent with Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1, the Cheson (2014) criteria for lymphoma patients, and the Response Assessment in Neuro-Oncology criteria for glioblastoma patients. For each treatment arm, 90% two-sided binomial exact confidence interval will be calculated for ORR.
Measure: Objective response rate (ORR) Time: Tumor assessments occurred at baseline, then every 2 cycles for the first 26 cycles and every 3 cycles thereafter until disease progression, up to 3 years post registrationDescription: OS is defined as time from treatment start date to date of death from any cause. Patients alive at the time of analysis are censored at last contact date. OS will be evaluated specifically for each drug (or step) using the Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Overall survival (OS) Time: Assessed every 3 months for =< 2 years and every 6 months for year 3Description: PFS is defined as time from treatment start date to date of progression or death from any cause, whichever occurs first. PFS will be estimated using the Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Progression free survival (PFS) Time: Assessed at baseline, then every 2 cycles for the first 26 cycles and every 3 cycles thereafter until disease progression, up to 3 years post registrationThis study is designed to assess the efficacy, pharmacokinetics, safety, and tolerability of an oral, twice daily dose of 150 mg GSK2118436 administered to subjects with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive metastatic melanoma to the brain. Subjects in Cohort A will not have received any local brain therapy, and subjects in Cohort B will have received prior local therapy for brain metastases. Subjects will continue on treatment until disease progression, death, or unacceptable adverse event.
A Study of GSK2118436 in BRAF Mutant Metastatic Melanoma to the Brain This study is designed to assess the efficacy, pharmacokinetics, safety, and tolerability of an oral, twice daily dose of 150 mg GSK2118436 administered to subjects with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive metastatic melanoma to the brain. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Participants who had an overall response of not evaluable or a missing response were treated as non-responders.. Number of Participants With V600K Mutation-positive Melanoma With a Best Overall Response (OR) of CR or PR, as Assessed by the Investigator. --- V600K ---
Participants who had an overall response of not evaluable or a missing response were treated as non-responders.. Number of Participants With V600K Mutation-positive Melanoma With OIR, as Assessed by the Investigator. --- V600K ---
In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm).. Duration of Intracranial Response for the Subset of V600K Mutation-positive Participants. --- V600K ---
In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm).. Duration of Overall Response for the Subset of V600K Mutation-positive Participants. --- V600K ---
If a participant received subsequent anti-cancer therapy prior to the date of documented PD/death, the participant was censored at the last adequate assessment and the visit level response was CR (disappearance of all target lesions), PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]), or stable disease (SD: neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for PR nor sufficient increase to qualify for PD.. Progression-free Survival in V600K Mutation-positive Participants. --- V600K ---
OS was censored using the date of last known contact for those participants who were alive at the time of analysis.. Overall Survival in V600K Mutation-positive Participants. --- V600K ---
- Histologically confirmed metastatic melanoma (Stage IV), carrying BRAF V600E- or V600K-mutation. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: OIR is defined as the number of participants whose intracranial response was a confirmed complete response (CR) or partial response (PR) assessed by investigators using modified Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST), version 1.1. CR is defined as disappearance of all lesions. PR is defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters (e.g., percent change from Baseline). For the primary analysis, OIR was measured when all participants in both treatment arms had two post-Baseline disease assessments. Participants who had an intracranial response of not evaluable or a missing response were treated as non-responders. Confirmation assessments were to be performed no less than 4 weeks after the criteria for response were initially met and may have been performed at the next protocol scheduled assessment.
Measure: Number of Participants With BRAF V600E Mutation-positive Melanoma With Overall Intracranial Response (OIR), as Assessed by the Investigator Time: From the time of the Baseline assessment until disease progression or end of study treatment (average of 18.3 weeks)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants achieving either a CR (the disappearance of all target lesions) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]) per modified RECIST, version 1.1. To determine the OR, the extracranial response was combined with the intracranial response. Confirmation assessments were to be performed no less than 4 weeks after the criteria for response were initially met and may have been performed at the next protocol-scheduled assessment. Participants who had an overall response of not evaluable or a missing response were treated as non-responders.
Measure: Number of Participants With V600E Mutation-positive Melanoma With a Best Overall Response (OR) of CR or PR, as Assessed by the Investigator Time: From the time of the Baseline assessment until disease progression or end of study treatment (average of 24 weeks)Description: OR is defined as the number of participants achieving either a CR (the disappearance of all target lesions) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]) per modified RECIST, version 1.1. To determine the OR, the extracranial response was combined with the intracranial response. Confirmation assessments were to be performed no less than 4 weeks after the criteria for response were initially met and may have been performed at the next protocol-scheduled assessment. Participants who had an overall response of not evaluable or a missing response were treated as non-responders.
Measure: Number of Participants With V600K Mutation-positive Melanoma With a Best Overall Response (OR) of CR or PR, as Assessed by the Investigator Time: From the time of the Baseline assessment until disease progression or end of study treatment (average of 17 weeks)Description: OIR is defined as the number of participants whose intracranial response was a confirmed complete response (CR) or partial response (PF) assessed by investigators using modified Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST), version 1.1. CR is defined as disappearance of all target lesions. PR is defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters (e.g., percent change from Baseline). For the primary analysis, OIR was measured when all participants in both treatment arms had two post-Baseline disease assessments. Participants who had an intracranial response of not evaluable or a missing response were treated as non-responders. Confirmation assessments were to be performed no less than 4 weeks after the criteria for response were initially met and may have been performed at the next protocol scheduled assessment.
Measure: Number of Participants With V600K Mutation-positive Melanoma With OIR, as Assessed by the Investigator Time: From the time of the Baseline assessment until disease progression or end of study treatment (average of 16 weeks)Description: Duration of Intracranial Response is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of intracranial CR (disappearance of all target lesions) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]) until the time of the first documented intracranial disease progression (PD) or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir, where nadir is defined as the smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm).
Measure: Duration of Intracranial Response for the Subset of V600E Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first documented evidence of intracranial CR or PR until the time of the first documented intracranial disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 27 weeks)Description: Duration of Intracranial Response is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of intracranial CR (disappearance of all target lesions) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]) until the time of the first documented intracranial disease progression (PD) or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir, where nadir is defined as the smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm).
Measure: Duration of Intracranial Response for the Subset of V600K Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first documented evidence of intracranial CR or PR until the time of the first documented intracranial disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 31 weeks)Description: Duration of Overall Response is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of overall CR (disappearance of all target lesions) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]) until the time of the first documented disease progression (PD) or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir, where nadir is defined as the smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm).
Measure: Duration of Overall Response for the Subset of V600E Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first documented evidence of CR or PR until the time of the first documented disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 28 weeks)Description: Duration of Overall Response is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of overall CR (disappearance of all target lesions) or PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]) until the time of the first documented disease progression (PD) or death due to any cause. PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir, where nadir is defined as the smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm).
Measure: Duration of Overall Response for the Subset of V600K Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first documented evidence of CR or PR until the time of the first documented disease progression or death due to any cause (average of 31 weeks)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the first dose of study medication to the earliest of death or progression (at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir, where nadir is defined as the smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm). If a participant received subsequent anti-cancer therapy prior to the date of documented PD/death, the participant was censored at the last adequate assessment and the visit level response was CR (disappearance of all target lesions), PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]), or stable disease (SD: neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for PR nor sufficient increase to qualify for PD.
Measure: Progression-free Survival in V600E Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first dose of study medication to the earliest of death or progression (average of 23 weeks)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the first dose of study medication to the earliest of death or progression (at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir, where nadir is defined as the smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters (mm). If a participant received subsequent anti-cancer therapy prior to the date of documented PD/death, the participant was censored at the last adequate assessment and the visit level response was CR (disappearance of all target lesions), PR (at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]), or stable disease (SD: neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for PR nor sufficient increase to qualify for PD.
Measure: Progression-free Survival in V600K Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first dose of study medication to the earliest of death or progression (average of 17 weeks)Description: Overall survival (OS) is defined as the time from the first dose of study medication until death due to any cause. OS was censored using the date of last known contact for those participants who were alive at the time of analysis.
Measure: Overall Survival of V600E Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first dose of study medication until death due to any cause (average of 35 weeks)Description: Overall survival (OS) is defined as the time from the first dose of study medication until death due to any cause. OS was censored using the date of last known contact for those participants who were alive at the time of analysis.
Measure: Overall Survival in V600K Mutation-positive Participants Time: Time from the first dose of study medication until death due to any cause (average of 26 weeks)Description: An AE is any untoward medical occurrence in a participant or clinical investigation participant, temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product, whether or not considered related to the medicinal product. An AE can therefore be any unfavorable and unintended sign (including an abnormal laboratory finding), symptom, or disease (new or exacerbated) temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product. An SAE is any untoward medical occurrence that, at any dose, results in death, is life threatening, requires hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, results in disability/incapacity, is a congenital anomaly/birth defect, or is an event of possible drug-induced liver injury.
Measure: Number of Participants With Any Adverse Event (AE) or Serious Adverse Event (SAE) Time: From Screening until the conclusion of the study (up to 103 weeks)Description: Clinical chemistry data were summarized at each scheduled assessment according to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE, version 4.0). Grade refers to the severity of the toxicity. The CTCAE displays Grades 1 through 5 with unique clinical descriptions of severity for each toxicity based on this general guideline: Grade (G) 1, mild; Grade 2, moderate; Grade 3, severe; Grade 4, life threatening; Grade 5, death related to toxicity. Blood sample was collected for the assessment of glucose, potassium, magnesium, sodium, phosphorus, potassium. aspartate aminotransferase (AST), alanine aminotransferase (ALT), alkaline phosphatase (ALP), creatinine, total bilirubin, albumin, amylase, cholesterol, creatine kinase, gamma glutamyl transferase (GGT), lipase, blood pH, and triglycerides.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case on Therapy Change to Grade 3 and Grade 4, or With Any Grade Increase (AGI), From Baseline Grade for Clinical Chemistry Parameters Time: From Screening until the conclusion of the study (up to 103 weeks)Description: Blood samples were collected for the assessment of hepatobiliary parameters. ALT=alanine aminotranserase; AST=aspartate aminotransferase; ALP=alkaline phosphatase; BIL=total bilirubin; INR=international normalized ratio; ULN=upper limit of normal. Hepato-cellular injury is defined as (ALT/ULN)/(ALP/ULN) >=5.
Measure: Number of Participants With the Indicated Hepatobiliary Laboratory Abnormalities Time: From Screening until the conclusion of the study (up to 103 weeks)Description: Hematology data were summarized at each scheduled assessment according to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI CTCAE, version 4.0). Grade refers to the severity of the toxicity. The CTCAE displays Grades 1 through 5 with unique clinical descriptions of severity for each toxicity based on this general guideline: Grade 1, mild; Grade 2, moderate; Grade 3, severe, Grade 4, life threatening, Grade 5, death related to toxicity. Blood sample was collected for the assessment of hemoglobin, white blood cells, and platelet count.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case on Therapy Change to Grade 3 and Grade 4, or With Any Grade Increase (AGI), From Baseline Grade for Hematology Parameters Time: From Screening until the conclusion of the study (up to 103 weeks)Description: Systolic and diastolic blood pressure were measured for all treated participants.
Measure: Mean Blood Pressure at Baseline and Weeks 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, and 36 Time: Baseline; Weeks 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24, 28, 32, and 36Description: An increase in the QTc interval corrected using Bazett's formula (Bazett's QTc) was recorded for all treated participants. Grade 1 (450-480 milliseconds [msec]), Grade 2 (481-500 msec), Grade 3/4 (>=501 msec). An increase is defined as an increase in CTCAE grade relative to Baseline grade.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Increase From Baseline in Bazett's QTc Reading in the 12-lead Electrocardiogram (ECG) Time: Baseline; Weeks 4, 12, 20, 28, 40, 52, and 64Description: Echocardiograms (ECHO) were measured for all treated participants. An echocardiogram test gives information about the structure and function of the heart. LLN=lower limit of normal (determined by the institution).
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Echocardiograms (ECHO) at Weeks 4 and 12 Time: Weeks (W) 4 and 12Description: Summary statistics were calculated for each time point by cohort. The population pharmacokinetics were determined using a non-linear mixed effects modeling approach after pooling the data with other studies. These results are reported separately.
Measure: Median Concentrations of GSK2118436 and Its Metabolites Including GSK2285403, GSK2298683, and GSK2167542 Time: Week 4 (pre-dose and 1-3 hours post-dose) and Weeks 8, 16, 24, and 32 (either pre-dose in the morning or in the afternoon at 4-8 hours post-dose)Description: This outcome measure could not be analyzed because too few participants participated in the dexamethasone study.
Measure: Composite of Pharmacokinetic Parameters of GSK2118436 in a Subset of Participants Receiving Dexamethasone Time: Day 15Description: The BRAF screening assay determines the specific BRAF mutational status (V600 E and K) in participants with metastatic melanoma who may benefit from treatment with GSK2118436. Per RECIST, version 1.1, CR is defined as the disappearance of all lesions. PR is defined as a >=30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline (BL) sum of the diameters (e.g., percent change from BL). Stable disease is defined as neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for PR nor sufficient increase to qualify for progressive disease (PD). PD is defined as a >=20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the smallest sum of diameters recorded since the treatment started (e.g., percent change from nadir [smallest sum of diameters recorded since treatment start]). In addition, the sum must have an absolute increase from nadir of 5 millimeters. Not evaluable: cannot be classified by a preceding definition.
Measure: Number of Response Genetics Incorporated (RGI) Investigational Use Only (IUO) Assay Mutation Positive Participants and THxID BRAF Assay Mutation Positive Participants With the Indicated Best Intracranial Response Time: ScreeningThis is an open label, single arm phase 1 dose escalation study and phase 2 study of BBI608 in combination with paclitaxel in patients with advanced malignancies. Currently the study is only enrolling patients with thymic carcinoma.
If melanoma is positive for the V600E or V600K BRAF mutation, must have received at least one line of prior therapy with a BRAF-specific inhibitor; either alone or in combination. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
This phase II trial investigates how well adding hydroxychloroquine to the standard treatment of dabrafenib and trametinib works to overcome resistance and delay disease progression in treating patients with stage IIIC or IV BRAF V600E/K melanoma. Hydroxychloroquine may cause cell death in tumor cells that rely on a process called "autophagy" for survival. Dabrafenib and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Giving hydroxychloroquine together with dabrafenib and trametinib may work better than dabrafenib and trametinib alone to shrink and stabilize the cancer.
Will be estimated by treatment arm.. Inclusion Criteria: - Patient must have locally advanced unresectable stage IIIC or stage IV melanoma - Patient must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K tumor genotype based on a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) approved assay - Patient must have measurable disease by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
phenytoin, carbamazepine, phenobarbital, primidone or oxcarbazepine) within 4 weeks prior to randomization - Patient must not have a current use of a prohibited medication Inclusion Criteria: - Patient must have locally advanced unresectable stage IIIC or stage IV melanoma - Patient must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K tumor genotype based on a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) approved assay - Patient must have measurable disease by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Estimated from the Kaplan-Meier curves and compared by treatment arm. A test statistic of the difference in one-year PFS rates divided by the square root or the sum of the variances will be used with a normal approximation. Progression will be evaluated based on international criteria proposed by the revised Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) guideline (version 1.1).
Measure: Progression-free survival (PFS) rate Time: From randomization to progression or death (whichever occurs first), assessed at 1 year after completion of treatmentDescription: Will be estimated using the method of Kaplan-Meier by treatment arm and compared using the log-rank test. In this analysis, all cases with PFS assessed (including cases with censored < one-year) will be included. Progression will be evaluated based on international criteria proposed by the revised RECIST guideline (version 1.1).
Measure: PFS distribution Time: From randomization to progression or death (whichever occurs first), assessed at 1 year after completion of treatmentDescription: Will be estimated by treatment arm and 95% confidence intervals (CIs) will be provided. Response will be defined by the RECIST guidelines (version 1.1).
Measure: Overall response rate Time: Up to 1 year after completion of treatmentDescription: Will be estimated by treatment arm and 95% CIs will be provided. Response will be defined by the RECIST guidelines (version 1.1).
Measure: Complete response rate Time: Up to 1 year after completion of treatmentDescription: Overall survival will be described using the method of Kaplan-Meier by treatment arm.
Measure: Overall survival Time: From randomization to death from any cause, assessed up to 1 year after completion of treatmentDescription: Will be monitored carefully throughout the study and will be summarized by treatment arm. Adverse events will be graded using the National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE).
Measure: Incidence of adverse events Time: Up to 1 year after completion of treatmentDescription: Will be estimated by treatment arm.
Measure: Treatment duration Time: Up to 1 year after completion of treatmentThe purpose of the study is to determine safety and tolerability of the combination of talimogene laherparepvec in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib in BRAF mutated advanced melanoma.
Primary or recurrent Stage IIIB to IVM1c melanoma for whom surgery is not recommended 3. Activating BRAF mutation (limited to V600E or V600K mutations if being treated first-line, but can include any well-defined BRAF mutation after failure of prior immunotherapy) 4. Measurable disease defined as follows: At least one melanoma lesion that can be accurately and serially measured in one dimension and for which the longest diameter is ≥10 mm as measured by calipers, CT scan, or MRI. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Number of DLT seen in the subject population
Measure: Rate of Dose Limiting Toxicities (DLT) Time: 2 yearsDescription: per RECIST 1.1
Measure: Progression Free Survival Time: 4 yearsDescription: per RECIST 1.1
Measure: Objective Response Rate Time: 4 yearsDescription: Best change in tumor diameters
Measure: Change in tumor burden Time: 4 yearsDescription: In responding patients, time from first dose to achieving objective response
Measure: Time to Response Time: 4 yearsDescription: In responding patients, time from first evidence of objective response until progression or end of study
Measure: Duration of Response Time: 4 yearsDescription: Change in diameters of individual lesions
Measure: Lesion-level objective response Time: 4 yearsDescription: Exploratory analysis including number of participants with changes in CD8+ tumor infiltrating lymphocytes between pre-study and on-study biopsies
Measure: Biomarker analysis Time: 4 yearsThis is a multicenter, 2-arm open-label, randomized comparative phase II study. The objective of this trial is to prospectively evaluate whether a sequential approach with an induction period of 12 weeks with encorafenib + binimetinib followed by combination immunotherapy with nivolumab + ipilimumab improves progression free survival compared to combination immunotherapy nivolumab + ipilimumab alone in patients with BRAF V600 mutation-positive unresectable or metastatic melanoma.
Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed unresectable stage III or IV cutaneous or mucosal melanoma - Presence of BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrolment as per local assessment - Tumor tissue from an unresectable or metastatic site of disease must be provided for biomarker analyses. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Note: Muscular activities, such as strenuous exercise, that can result in significant increases in plasma CK levels should be avoided while on binimetinib treatment - Impaired cardiovascular function or clinically significant cardiovascular diseases - Uncontrolled hypertension defined as persistent elevation of systolic blood pressure ≥ 150 mmHg or diastolic blood pressure ≥ 100mmHg, despite current therapy - History of chronic inflammatory bowel disease or Crohn's disease requiring medical intervention (immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive medications or surgery) ≤ 12 months prior to starting study treatment - History of thromboembolic or cerebrovascular events ≤ 6 months prior to starting study treatment, including stroke, transient ischemic attacks, cerebrovascular accidents, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary emboli, aortic aneurysm requiring surgical repair or recent peripheral arterial thrombosis Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically or cytologically confirmed unresectable stage III or IV cutaneous or mucosal melanoma - Presence of BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrolment as per local assessment - Tumor tissue from an unresectable or metastatic site of disease must be provided for biomarker analyses. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: PRS is defined as the time from the date of randomization until the first date of progression, or until date of death (whatever the cause), whichever occurs first. Progression will be assessed according to the RECIST criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Progression Free Survival (PFS) Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: OS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of death, whatever the cause.
Measure: Overall Survival (OS) Time: 6 years from first patient inDescription: CR will be assessed according to the RECIST criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Complete Response (CR) rate Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: Time to CR is defined as the time from the date of randomization until the occurrence of first CR.
Measure: Time to Complete Response (CR) Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: Duration of CR will be measured from the time measurement criteria for CR are first met until the first date that recurrence is objectively documented.
Measure: Duration of Complete Response (CR) Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: Best overall response will be assessed according to the RECIST criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Best overall response rate Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: Time to best response is defined as the time from the date of randomization until the occurrence of the best response (CR or PR, whichever comes first). CR and PR will be assessed according to the RECIST criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Time to best response Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: Best response duration will be measured from the time measurement criteria for CR/PR (whichever is first recorded) are first met until the first date that recurrent or progressive disease is objectively documented. CR and PR will be assessed according to the RECIST criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Duration of best response Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: This study will use the International Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE), version 4.0, for adverse event reporting.
Measure: Occurrence of adverse events Time: 4.1 years from first patient inDescription: PFS2 is defined as the time from randomization to second objective disease progression, or death from any cause, whichever first. The second objective disease progression will be assessed according to the RECIST criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Progression-free survival 2 (PFS2) Time: 4.1 years from first patient inThis research study is studying an investigational combination of drugs as a possible treatment for advanced solid tumors: melanoma, ovarian, renal, or colorectal cancer. The drugs involved in this study are: - Pembrolizumab - AMG386
Melanoma patients with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive melanoma who have previously received a BRAF inhibitor with or without a MEK inhibitor) are eligible. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
The study plans to treat patients with pembrolizumab and thus blocking the PD-1/PD-L1 axis would render tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes (TILs) in the tumor parenchyma more functional as a consequence of BRAF inhibition, such that T cell activation by BRAFi would not be dampened by the PD-1/PD-L1 interaction. This combination would reverse dysfunction among T cells in the tumor parenchyma, maximizing T cell mediated immune anti-tumor efficacy. Progression free survival (PFS) with pembrolizumab in KEYNOTE-001 was 57% at 6 months, and 46.4% in the more recently reported phase III trial. PFS with vemurafenib treatment in BRIM-3 was ~50% at 6 months. Combined treatment with pembrolizumab, cobimetinib and vemurafenib for BRAF mutant melanoma is hypothesized to be safe and to improve the PFS compared to these recent historical controls. Because this combination has not yet been tested, and because the primary objective is to assess safety, the investigators are staging accrual in the first phase of the trial. The study aims to accrue up to 30 patients to the mTPI design of this study with the expectation that there will be at least 30 patients treated at RP2D. In case there are less than 30 patients on the RP2D, additional patients will be accrued. Patients will continue to receive treatment with pembrolizumab, vemurafenib and cobimetinib until disease progression or dose limiting toxicity. Patients with treatment response and no dose limiting toxicity may receive treatment with pembrolizumab for up to 24 months.
Only patients with BRAF V600E or V600K mutated tumors will be enrolled. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: determine the safety and maximum tolerated dose of vemurafenib and cobimetinib with pembrolizumab
Measure: Percentage of participants that experience a dose-limiting toxicity Time: Up to 2 yearsThis is an open-label, 3-arm, fixed-sequence study to evaluate the effect of single and multiple oral doses of encorafenib in combination with binimetinib on the single oral dose pharmacokinetics (PK) of cytochrome P450 (CYP) enzyme probe substrates using a probe cocktail, on an organic anion-transporting polypeptide/breast cancer resistance protein (OATP/BCRP) substrate using rosuvastatin and on a CYP2B6 substrate using bupropion. The effect of multiple oral doses of the moderate cytochrome P450 (CYP) inhibitor modafinil on encorafenib in combination with binimetinib will also be assessed. The study will have 2 treatment phases, a drug-drug interaction (DDI) phase followed by a post-DDI phase.
Key Inclusion Criteria - Patients must meet all of the inclusion criteria to be eligible for enrollment into the study: - Histologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) Stage IIIB, IIIC or IV; or other BRAF V600-mutant advanced solid tumors - Presence of BRAF V600E and/or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrollment, as determined using a local test; - Evidence of measurable or non-measurable lesions - Patient with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic melanoma who has received no prior treatment or progressed on or after prior systemic therapy; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF proto-oncogene serine-threonine protein kinase (BRAF) inhibitor and/or a mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase (MEK) inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Patient with other (non-melanoma) BRAF V600E and/or V600K -mutant advanced solid tumors who has progressed on standard therapy or for whom there are no available standard therapies; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF inhibitor and/or a MEK inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0 or 1 - Adequate bone marrow, hepatic and renal function as specified in the protocol - ARM 1 ONLY: Non-smoker who has not used nicotine containing products for at least 3 months prior to the first dose. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Key Inclusion Criteria - Patients must meet all of the inclusion criteria to be eligible for enrollment into the study: - Histologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) Stage IIIB, IIIC or IV; or other BRAF V600-mutant advanced solid tumors - Presence of BRAF V600E and/or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrollment, as determined using a local test; - Evidence of measurable or non-measurable lesions - Patient with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic melanoma who has received no prior treatment or progressed on or after prior systemic therapy; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF proto-oncogene serine-threonine protein kinase (BRAF) inhibitor and/or a mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase (MEK) inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Patient with other (non-melanoma) BRAF V600E and/or V600K -mutant advanced solid tumors who has progressed on standard therapy or for whom there are no available standard therapies; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF inhibitor and/or a MEK inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0 or 1 - Adequate bone marrow, hepatic and renal function as specified in the protocol - ARM 1 ONLY: Non-smoker who has not used nicotine containing products for at least 3 months prior to the first dose. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
- Discontinuation of prior BRAF and/or MEK inhibitor treatment due to left ventricular dysfunction, pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease, or retinal vein occlusion; - ARM 1 ONLY: Positive urine cotinine test at screening - ARM 3 ONLY: - History of psychosis, depression or mania; - History of angioedema; - History of mitral valve prolapse; - History of left ventricular hypertrophy; Key Inclusion Criteria - Patients must meet all of the inclusion criteria to be eligible for enrollment into the study: - Histologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) Stage IIIB, IIIC or IV; or other BRAF V600-mutant advanced solid tumors - Presence of BRAF V600E and/or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrollment, as determined using a local test; - Evidence of measurable or non-measurable lesions - Patient with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic melanoma who has received no prior treatment or progressed on or after prior systemic therapy; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF proto-oncogene serine-threonine protein kinase (BRAF) inhibitor and/or a mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase (MEK) inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Patient with other (non-melanoma) BRAF V600E and/or V600K -mutant advanced solid tumors who has progressed on standard therapy or for whom there are no available standard therapies; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF inhibitor and/or a MEK inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0 or 1 - Adequate bone marrow, hepatic and renal function as specified in the protocol - ARM 1 ONLY: Non-smoker who has not used nicotine containing products for at least 3 months prior to the first dose. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
- Discontinuation of prior BRAF and/or MEK inhibitor treatment due to left ventricular dysfunction, pneumonitis/interstitial lung disease, or retinal vein occlusion; - ARM 1 ONLY: Positive urine cotinine test at screening - ARM 3 ONLY: - History of psychosis, depression or mania; - History of angioedema; - History of mitral valve prolapse; - History of left ventricular hypertrophy; Key Inclusion Criteria - Patients must meet all of the inclusion criteria to be eligible for enrollment into the study: - Histologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) Stage IIIB, IIIC or IV; or other BRAF V600-mutant advanced solid tumors - Presence of BRAF V600E and/or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrollment, as determined using a local test; - Evidence of measurable or non-measurable lesions - Patient with unresectable locally advanced or metastatic melanoma who has received no prior treatment or progressed on or after prior systemic therapy; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF proto-oncogene serine-threonine protein kinase (BRAF) inhibitor and/or a mitogen-activated protein (MAP) kinase (MEK) inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Patient with other (non-melanoma) BRAF V600E and/or V600K -mutant advanced solid tumors who has progressed on standard therapy or for whom there are no available standard therapies; Note: Prior therapy with a BRAF inhibitor and/or a MEK inhibitor is permitted except in the regimen immediately prior to study entry - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) of 0 or 1 - Adequate bone marrow, hepatic and renal function as specified in the protocol - ARM 1 ONLY: Non-smoker who has not used nicotine containing products for at least 3 months prior to the first dose. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
This research study is studying a combination of targeted therapies as a possible treatment for advanced melanoma that was found to have a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K genetic mutation. The interventions involved in this study are: - MCS110 - Dabrafenib - Trametinib
MCS110 With BRAF/MEK Inhibition in Patients With Melanoma This research study is studying a combination of targeted therapies as a possible treatment for advanced melanoma that was found to have a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K genetic mutation. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Inclusion Criteria: - For enrollment to the phase I portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or any CLIA-certified method) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
- For enrollment to the phase II portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or any CLIA-certified method) and have had progression of disease on prior BRAF and MEK inhibitor therapy. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Any side effects or severe side effects that require the drug to be held or reduced
Measure: Dose Limiting Toxicity Time: 2 yearsDescription: The percentage of patients that have a reduction of their disease on imaging that meets RECIST criteria
Measure: Overall Response Rate Time: 2 yearsDescription: The percentage of patients who have a reduction of their disease on imaging to the point that it can no longer be measured.
Measure: Complete Response rate Time: 2 yearsDescription: The percentage of patients who have meet RECIST criteria for having a reduction in their disease on imaging but still have measurable disease.
Measure: Partial Response rate Time: 2 yearsDescription: The length of time between participants starting study treatment and having growth of their disease
Measure: Progression Free Survival Time: 2 yearsDescription: The amount of time between participants starting study therapy and death
Measure: Overall Survival Time: 2 yearsDescription: Any side effects or severe side effects associated with study therapy
Measure: Toxicity (Safety and Tolerability) Time: 2 yearsThis is 2-part, randomized, open label, multi-center, parallel group, phase III study comparing the efficacy and safety of LGX818 plus MEK162 to vemurafenib and LGX818 monotherapy in patients with locally advanced unresectable or metastatic melanoma with BRAF V600 mutation. A total of approximately 900 patients will be randomized. Part 1: Patients will be randomized in a 1:1:1 ratio to one of 3 treatment arms: 1. LGX818 450 mg QD plus MEK162 45 mg BID (denoted as Combo 450 arm) 2. LGX818 300 mg QD monotherapy (denoted as LGX818 arm) or 3. vemurafenib 960 mg BID (denoted as vemurafenib arm) Part 2: Patients will be randomized in a 3:1 ratio to one of the 2 treatment arms: 1. LGX818 300 mg QD plus MEK162 45 mg BID (denoted as Combo 300 arm) or 2. LGX818 300 mg QD monotherapy (denoted as LGX818 arm)
Change from baseline in the EQ-5D.. Inclusion Criteria: - Diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma (AJCC Stage IIIB, IIIC, or IV) - Presence of BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to randomization - Naïve untreated patients or patients who have progressed on or after prior first line immunotherapy for resectable locally advanced or metastatic melanoma; prior adjuvant therapy is permitted (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
IFN, IL-2 therapy, any other immunotherapy, radiotherapy or chemotherapy), except the administration of BRAF or MEK inhibitors - Evidence of at least one measurable lesion as detected by radiological or photographic methods - ECOG performance status of 0 or 1 - Adequate bone marrow, organ function, cardiac and laboratory parameters - Normal functioning of daily living activities Exclusion Criteria: - Any untreated central nervous system (CNS) lesion - Uveal and mucosal melanoma - History of leptomeningeal metastases - History of or current evidence of central serous retinopathy (CSR), retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or history of retinal degenerative disease - Any previous systemic chemotherapy treatment, extensive radiotherapy or investigational agent other than immunotherapy, or patients who have received more than one line of immunotherapy for locally advanced unresectable or metastatic melanoma; Ipilimumab (adjuvant) or other immunotherapy treatment must have ended at least 6 weeks prior to randomization - History of Gilbert's syndrome - Prior therapy with a BRAF inhibitor and/or a MEK- inhibitor - Impaired cardiovascular function or clinically significant cardiovascular diseases - Uncontrolled arterial hypertension despite medical treatment - HIV positive or active Hepatitis B, and/or active Hepatitis C - Impairment of gastrointestinal function - Patients with neuromuscular disorders that are associated with elevated CK - Pregnant or nursing (lactating) women - Medical, psychiatric, cognitive or other conditions that may compromise the patient's ability to understand the patient information, give informed consent, comply with the study protocol or complete the study Other protocol-defined inclusion/exclusion criteria may apply Inclusion Criteria: - Diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma (AJCC Stage IIIB, IIIC, or IV) - Presence of BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to randomization - Naïve untreated patients or patients who have progressed on or after prior first line immunotherapy for resectable locally advanced or metastatic melanoma; prior adjuvant therapy is permitted (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: PFS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of the first documented disease progression or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. PFS will be determined based on tumor assessment (RECIST version 1.1 criteria) as per Blinded Independent Review Committee (BIRC) and survival information. The local Investigator's assessments will be used as supportive analyses.
Measure: Progression free survival (PFS) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: OS is calculated as the time from date of randomization to date of death due to any cause.
Measure: Overall Survival (OS) Time: Up to approximately 5 years after first patient randomizedDescription: PFS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of the first documented disease progression or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. PFS will be determined based on tumor assessment (RECIST version 1.1 criteria) as per Blinded Independent Review Committee (BIRC) and survival information. The local Investigator's assessments will be used as supportive analyses.
Measure: Progression Free Survival (PFS) Time: Approximately 2 years with update around 3 years after first patient randomizedDescription: ORR calculated as the proportion of patient with a best overall response of complete response (CR) or partial response (PR). ORR will be calculated for confirmed and unconfirmed responses separately.
Measure: Objective Response Rate (ORR) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: TTR calculated as the time from date of randomization until first documented complete response (CR) or partial response (PR).
Measure: Time To Response (TTR) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: DCR calculated as the proportion of patient with a best overall response of CR, PR or stable disease (SD).
Measure: Disease Control Rate (DCR) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: DOR calculated as the time from the date of first documented CR or PR to the first documented progression or death due to underlying cancer.
Measure: Duration of objective response (DOR) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Number of patients with adverse events and serious adverse events, changes in laboratory values, vital signs, electrocardiograms (ECGs), MUGA (Multi Gated Acquisition Scan)/ echocardiogram and assessment of physical,dermatological and ocular examinations graded according to the National Cancer Institute (NCI) Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) v4.03.
Measure: Safety and tolerability of combination and LGX818 Time: Up to approximately 4 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Change from baseline in the ECOG PS.
Measure: ECOG Performance status (PS) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Time to definitive 1 point deterioration in the ECOG PS is defined as the time form date of randomization to definitive deterioration, where deterioration is considered as definitive if no improvement in the ECOG PS status is observed at a subsequent time of measurement during the treatment period following the time point where the deterioration is observed.
Measure: Time to definitive 1 point deterioration in ECOG performance status Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Plasma concentration-profiles of LGX818 and MEK162 and model based PK parameters.
Measure: Pharmacokinetics of LGX818 and MEK162 Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Time to definitive 10% deterioration in the global health status score of the EORTC QLQ-C30 is the time from the date of randomization to the date of at least 10% relative to baseline worsening with no later improvement above this threshold observed during the course of the study or death due to any cause.
Measure: Time to definitive 10% deterioration in global health status (EORTC QLQC30) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Change from baseline in the global health status score of the EORTC QLQ-C30.
Measure: Global health status (EORTC QLQC30) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Time to definitive 10% deterioration in the FACT-M melanoma (subscale) is the time from the date of randomization to the date of at least 10% relative to baseline worsening with no later improvement above this threshold observed during the course of the study or death due to any cause.
Measure: Time to definitive 10% deterioration in the FACT-M melanoma subscale Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedDescription: Change from baseline in the EQ-5D.
Measure: Global health status (EQ-5D) Time: Approximately 2 years after first patient randomizedThis phase II trial studies how well dabrafenib and trametinib work in treating patients with stage III-IV melanoma that cannot be removed by surgery and contains a B-Raf proto-oncogene, serine/threonine kinase (BRAF) mutation. Dabrafenib and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth.
Cox regression analyses will be used to evaluate biomarkers' associations with PFS.. Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV or unresectable stage III BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutant melanoma - Patients must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation identified by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; acceptable analytic techniques include but are not restricted to DNA sequencing, pyrosequencing, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), melting point assays, and immunohistochemistry - Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scans of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis are required; a whole body positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan with diagnostic quality images and intravenous iodinated contrast may be used in lieu of a contrast enhanced CT of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis; contrast may be omitted if the treating investigator believes that exposure to contrast poses an excessive risk to the patient; patients must have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1; all measurable lesions must be assessed within 28 days prior to registration; tests to assess non-measurable disease must be performed within 42 days prior to registration; all disease must be assessed and documented on the Baseline Tumor Assessment Form (RECIST 1.1) - Patients must not have received a prior BRAF or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitor - Patients with a history of brain metastases are eligible if the patient is asymptomatic with no residual neurological dysfunction and has not received enzyme-reducing anti-epileptic drugs or corticosteroids for at least 7 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any anti-cancer drug within 28 days prior to registration, and must not have received any nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any major surgery or immunotherapy within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must not have any unresolved toxicity greater than National Cancer Institute (NCI)-CTCAE version (v) 4.0 grade 1 from previous anti-cancer therapy except alopecia within 7 days prior to registration - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,200/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Platelets >= 100,000/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (or =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal [ULN] with Gilbert's syndrome) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x IULN (or < 5 x IULN for patients with known liver metastases) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum albumin >= 2.5 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x mg/dL OR measured or calculated creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min; creatinine measurements must be obtained within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) obtained within 28 days prior to registration in order to obtain baseline stratification information - Patients must have a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= institutional lower limit of normal (ILLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) or multi gated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have corrected QT (QTc) =< 480 msec by electrocardiogram (ECG) (corrected using the Bazett's formula) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients with known history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible: - History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Cox regression analyses will be used to evaluate biomarkers' associations with PFS.. Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV or unresectable stage III BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutant melanoma - Patients must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation identified by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; acceptable analytic techniques include but are not restricted to DNA sequencing, pyrosequencing, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), melting point assays, and immunohistochemistry - Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scans of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis are required; a whole body positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan with diagnostic quality images and intravenous iodinated contrast may be used in lieu of a contrast enhanced CT of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis; contrast may be omitted if the treating investigator believes that exposure to contrast poses an excessive risk to the patient; patients must have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1; all measurable lesions must be assessed within 28 days prior to registration; tests to assess non-measurable disease must be performed within 42 days prior to registration; all disease must be assessed and documented on the Baseline Tumor Assessment Form (RECIST 1.1) - Patients must not have received a prior BRAF or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitor - Patients with a history of brain metastases are eligible if the patient is asymptomatic with no residual neurological dysfunction and has not received enzyme-reducing anti-epileptic drugs or corticosteroids for at least 7 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any anti-cancer drug within 28 days prior to registration, and must not have received any nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any major surgery or immunotherapy within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must not have any unresolved toxicity greater than National Cancer Institute (NCI)-CTCAE version (v) 4.0 grade 1 from previous anti-cancer therapy except alopecia within 7 days prior to registration - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,200/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Platelets >= 100,000/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (or =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal [ULN] with Gilbert's syndrome) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x IULN (or < 5 x IULN for patients with known liver metastases) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum albumin >= 2.5 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x mg/dL OR measured or calculated creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min; creatinine measurements must be obtained within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) obtained within 28 days prior to registration in order to obtain baseline stratification information - Patients must have a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= institutional lower limit of normal (ILLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) or multi gated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have corrected QT (QTc) =< 480 msec by electrocardiogram (ECG) (corrected using the Bazett's formula) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients with known history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible: - History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
ulcerative disease, uncontrolled nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, malabsorption syndrome or small bowel resection) - Patients receiving anticoagulation treatment are allowed to participate with international normalized ratio (INR) established within the therapeutic range - Patients must not have a history of pneumonitis or interstitial lung disease - Patients must not have any grade II/III/IV cardiac disease as defined by the New York Heart Association criteria (i.e., patients with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity or resulting in inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort), unstable angina pectoris, myocardial infarction within 6 months, or serious uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia; abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis]) can be entered on study; patients with a history of atrial fibrillation must have atrial fibrillation controlled for at least 30 days prior to registration - Patients with known hepatitis B or hepatitis C are not eligible, regardless of concomitant antiretroviral therapy or current viral load - Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be eligible providing they meet the following additional criteria: - Cluster of differentiation (CD)4 cells >= 500/uL - Serum HIV viral load of < 25,000 IU/ml - No current antiretroviral therapy - Tests must be obtained within 28 days prior to registration; patients who are HIV positive (+) and do not meet all of these criteria are not eligible for this study (HIV/hepatitis testing are not required for patients without known infection) - Pre-study history and physical must be obtained with 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have dermatology exam obtained within 28 days prior to registration to obtain baseline measurement; exam to be performed by treating physician or designated dermatologist - Patients must have Zubrod performance status of 0, 1 or 2 - No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for three years; exception: patients with known history of colon cancer, cancer of the pancreas, or any cancer known to harbor an activating RAS mutation are ineligible regardless of stage or time since diagnosis - Patients must not be pregnant or nursing because of the risk of fetal harm; women/men of reproductive potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method; a woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation; however, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, he/she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures; hormonal contraception is not allowed due to drug interactions which can render hormonal contraceptives ineffective - Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking - Patients with cutaneous or superficial lesions that do not require imaging guidance for biopsy must be willing to undergo biopsies for tissue submission and blood draws for translational medicine - Patients or their legally authorized representative must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines - As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system - STEP 2: RANDOMIZATION - After completing one cycle of therapy, patients will be registered for randomization between intermittent and continuous dosing, provided that they were eligible for the initial step 1 registration and satisfy the following criteria - Patients must not have unequivocal disease progression (by RECIST v1.1) during the first cycle; patients must have disease assessed using the same method as baseline within +/- 5 days of the day 56 scheduled assessment (between days 51-55 of cycle 1, or days 1-5 of cycle 2); all disease must be assessed and documented on the follow-up tumor assessment form (RECIST 1.1) - Patients must be registered to step 2: randomization within +/- 5 days of starting cycle 2; patients MUST NOT be registered prior to the day 56 disease assessment Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV or unresectable stage III BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutant melanoma - Patients must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation identified by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; acceptable analytic techniques include but are not restricted to DNA sequencing, pyrosequencing, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), melting point assays, and immunohistochemistry - Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scans of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis are required; a whole body positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan with diagnostic quality images and intravenous iodinated contrast may be used in lieu of a contrast enhanced CT of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis; contrast may be omitted if the treating investigator believes that exposure to contrast poses an excessive risk to the patient; patients must have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1; all measurable lesions must be assessed within 28 days prior to registration; tests to assess non-measurable disease must be performed within 42 days prior to registration; all disease must be assessed and documented on the Baseline Tumor Assessment Form (RECIST 1.1) - Patients must not have received a prior BRAF or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitor - Patients with a history of brain metastases are eligible if the patient is asymptomatic with no residual neurological dysfunction and has not received enzyme-reducing anti-epileptic drugs or corticosteroids for at least 7 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any anti-cancer drug within 28 days prior to registration, and must not have received any nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any major surgery or immunotherapy within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must not have any unresolved toxicity greater than National Cancer Institute (NCI)-CTCAE version (v) 4.0 grade 1 from previous anti-cancer therapy except alopecia within 7 days prior to registration - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,200/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Platelets >= 100,000/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (or =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal [ULN] with Gilbert's syndrome) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x IULN (or < 5 x IULN for patients with known liver metastases) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum albumin >= 2.5 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x mg/dL OR measured or calculated creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min; creatinine measurements must be obtained within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) obtained within 28 days prior to registration in order to obtain baseline stratification information - Patients must have a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= institutional lower limit of normal (ILLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) or multi gated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have corrected QT (QTc) =< 480 msec by electrocardiogram (ECG) (corrected using the Bazett's formula) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients with known history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible: - History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
ulcerative disease, uncontrolled nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, malabsorption syndrome or small bowel resection) - Patients receiving anticoagulation treatment are allowed to participate with international normalized ratio (INR) established within the therapeutic range - Patients must not have a history of pneumonitis or interstitial lung disease - Patients must not have any grade II/III/IV cardiac disease as defined by the New York Heart Association criteria (i.e., patients with cardiac disease resulting in marked limitation of physical activity or resulting in inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort), unstable angina pectoris, myocardial infarction within 6 months, or serious uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmia; abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis]) can be entered on study; patients with a history of atrial fibrillation must have atrial fibrillation controlled for at least 30 days prior to registration - Patients with known hepatitis B or hepatitis C are not eligible, regardless of concomitant antiretroviral therapy or current viral load - Patients with known human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) may be eligible providing they meet the following additional criteria: - Cluster of differentiation (CD)4 cells >= 500/uL - Serum HIV viral load of < 25,000 IU/ml - No current antiretroviral therapy - Tests must be obtained within 28 days prior to registration; patients who are HIV positive (+) and do not meet all of these criteria are not eligible for this study (HIV/hepatitis testing are not required for patients without known infection) - Pre-study history and physical must be obtained with 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have dermatology exam obtained within 28 days prior to registration to obtain baseline measurement; exam to be performed by treating physician or designated dermatologist - Patients must have Zubrod performance status of 0, 1 or 2 - No other prior malignancy is allowed except for the following: adequately treated basal cell or squamous cell skin cancer, in situ cervical cancer, adequately treated stage I or II cancer from which the patient is currently in complete remission, or any other cancer from which the patient has been disease free for three years; exception: patients with known history of colon cancer, cancer of the pancreas, or any cancer known to harbor an activating RAS mutation are ineligible regardless of stage or time since diagnosis - Patients must not be pregnant or nursing because of the risk of fetal harm; women/men of reproductive potential must have agreed to use an effective contraceptive method; a woman is considered to be of "reproductive potential" if she has had menses at any time in the preceding 12 consecutive months; in addition to routine contraceptive methods, "effective contraception" also includes heterosexual celibacy and surgery intended to prevent pregnancy (or with a side-effect of pregnancy prevention) defined as a hysterectomy, bilateral oophorectomy or bilateral tubal ligation; however, if at any point a previously celibate patient chooses to become heterosexually active during the time period for use of contraceptive measures outlined in the protocol, he/she is responsible for beginning contraceptive measures; hormonal contraception is not allowed due to drug interactions which can render hormonal contraceptives ineffective - Patients must be offered the opportunity to participate in specimen banking - Patients with cutaneous or superficial lesions that do not require imaging guidance for biopsy must be willing to undergo biopsies for tissue submission and blood draws for translational medicine - Patients or their legally authorized representative must be informed of the investigational nature of this study and must sign and give written informed consent in accordance with institutional and federal guidelines - As a part of the Oncology Patient Enrollment Network (OPEN) registration process the treating institution's identity is provided in order to ensure that the current (within 365 days) date of institutional review board approval for this study has been entered in the system - STEP 2: RANDOMIZATION - After completing one cycle of therapy, patients will be registered for randomization between intermittent and continuous dosing, provided that they were eligible for the initial step 1 registration and satisfy the following criteria - Patients must not have unequivocal disease progression (by RECIST v1.1) during the first cycle; patients must have disease assessed using the same method as baseline within +/- 5 days of the day 56 scheduled assessment (between days 51-55 of cycle 1, or days 1-5 of cycle 2); all disease must be assessed and documented on the follow-up tumor assessment form (RECIST 1.1) - Patients must be registered to step 2: randomization within +/- 5 days of starting cycle 2; patients MUST NOT be registered prior to the day 56 disease assessment Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IV or unresectable stage III BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutant melanoma - Patients must have BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation identified by a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory; acceptable analytic techniques include but are not restricted to DNA sequencing, pyrosequencing, polymerase chain reaction (PCR), melting point assays, and immunohistochemistry - Contrast-enhanced computed tomography (CT) scans of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis are required; a whole body positron emission tomography (PET)/CT scan with diagnostic quality images and intravenous iodinated contrast may be used in lieu of a contrast enhanced CT of the neck, chest, abdomen and pelvis; contrast may be omitted if the treating investigator believes that exposure to contrast poses an excessive risk to the patient; patients must have measurable disease per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1; all measurable lesions must be assessed within 28 days prior to registration; tests to assess non-measurable disease must be performed within 42 days prior to registration; all disease must be assessed and documented on the Baseline Tumor Assessment Form (RECIST 1.1) - Patients must not have received a prior BRAF or mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitor - Patients with a history of brain metastases are eligible if the patient is asymptomatic with no residual neurological dysfunction and has not received enzyme-reducing anti-epileptic drugs or corticosteroids for at least 7 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any anti-cancer drug within 28 days prior to registration, and must not have received any nitrosoureas or mitomycin C within 42 days prior to registration - Patients must not have received any major surgery or immunotherapy within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must not have any unresolved toxicity greater than National Cancer Institute (NCI)-CTCAE version (v) 4.0 grade 1 from previous anti-cancer therapy except alopecia within 7 days prior to registration - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1,200/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Platelets >= 100,000/ul (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (IULN) (or =< 2.5 x upper limit of normal [ULN] with Gilbert's syndrome) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x IULN (or < 5 x IULN for patients with known liver metastases) (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum albumin >= 2.5 g/dL (obtained within 28 days prior to registration) - Serum creatinine =< 1.5 x mg/dL OR measured or calculated creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min; creatinine measurements must be obtained within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) obtained within 28 days prior to registration in order to obtain baseline stratification information - Patients must have a left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) >= institutional lower limit of normal (ILLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) or multi gated acquisition scan (MUGA) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients must have corrected QT (QTc) =< 480 msec by electrocardiogram (ECG) (corrected using the Bazett's formula) within 28 days prior to registration - Patients with known history or current evidence of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) are not eligible: - History of RVO or CSR, or predisposing factors to RVO or CSR (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Testing of the superiority of intermittent dosing of dabrafenib and trametinib compared to continuous dosing with these two same agents will be based on progression-free survival. Stratified Cox regression models stratified by stratification factors will be used for all analyses.
Measure: Progression-free survival (PFS) Time: Measured from date of randomization, assessed up to 5 yearsDescription: Overall survival between patients on each arm and survival after progression will be compared using Cox regression models.
Measure: Overall survival Time: Up to 5 yearsDescription: Response rates between arms will be compared using Fisher's exact test.
Measure: Response rates Time: Up to 5 yearsDescription: Defined as >= grade 3 per Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version (v)4.0 with attribution possibly, probably, or definitely related to treatment; or any >= grade 1 per CTCAE v4.0 with attribution possibly, probably, or definitely related to treatment with chills, dehydration, hypotension, dizziness, or muscle weakness per CTCAE v4.0 with attribution possibly, probably, or definitely related to treatment reported during the same course. Rates of fever between arms will also be compared using Fisher's exact test.
Measure: Rates of fever Time: Up to 5 yearsDescription: Compared between patients of the two treatment groups.
Measure: Molecular events leading to reactivation of the MAPK pathway Time: Up to 5 yearsDescription: Cox regression analyses will be used to evaluate biomarkers' associations with PFS.
Measure: Change in biomarkers associated with PFS of archived tissue Time: Baseline up to 5 yearsDescription: Cox regression analyses will be used to evaluate biomarkers' associations with PFS.
Measure: Interaction between baseline biomarkers and treatment arm Time: Baseline up to 5 yearsThe primary purpose of this study is to determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD) and preliminary safety of hydroxychloroquine (HCQ) when administered in conjunction with oral dabrafenib and trametinib (D+T) in patients with advanced BRAF mutant melanoma.
- Patients must have histologically confirmed melanoma unresectable Stage III or Stage IV positive for BRAF V600E, V600K, V600R or V600D by a CLIA approved assay. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Phase 1: Maximum tolerated dose (MTD) = a) the dose producing Dose Limiting Toxicity (DLT) in 2/6 patients, or b) the dose level below the dose which produced DLT in ≥ 2/3 patients, or in ≥ 3/6 patients
Measure: Phase 1: To determine the maximum tolerated dose Time: 5 weeksDescription: Phase 2: Progression free survival (PFS) is defined as the duration of time from start of treatment to time of first progression, death due to any cause or last patient contact alive and progression-free
Measure: Phase 2: To assess the clinical efficacy of HCQ+D+T by 1 year PFS rate. Time: 1 yearThis is a multicenter Phase 1b, open-label study to evaluate the pharmacokinetic, safety and efficacy of binimetinib and encorafenib co-administered to adolescent patients with BRAF V600-mutant advanced/metastatic melanoma. The study consists of a Safety Run-in Phase to determine the RDE (recommended dose in expansion), followed by an Expansion Phase.
- Histologically confirmed diagnosis of locally advanced, unresectable or metastatic cutaneous melanoma or unknown primary melanoma American Joint Committee on Cancer Stage IIIB, IIIC, or IV. - Presence of BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in tumor tissue as determined by a local or central laboratory - Adequate cardiac function: - Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) ≥ 50% as determined by ECHO or multi-gated acquisition (MUGA) scan and above the institutional lower limit of normal (LLN); - Triplicate average baseline QTcF value ≤ 450 ms. - Adequate bone marrow, organ function, and laboratory parameters: - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) ≥ 1.5 × 10⁹/L; - Hemoglobin ≥ 9 g/dL with or without transfusions; - Platelets ≥ 75 × 10⁹/L without transfusions; - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and/or alanine aminotransferase (ALT) ≤ 2.5 × upper limit of normal (ULN); in patients with liver metastases ≤ 5 × ULN; - Total bilirubin ≤ 1.5 × ULN; - Creatinine ≤ 1.5 × institutional ULN for age, or calculated creatinine clearance ≥ 70 mL/min/1.73 --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Five-point Hedonic scale from 1 to 5, 5=really good
Measure: Palatability score for the pediatric formulations as assessed by an age-appropriate questionnaire for binimetinib Time: Through Cycle 3 Day 1 in patients receiving the pediatric formulations in the Expansion Phase, 28 day cyclesDescription: Five-point Hedonic scale from 1 to 5, 5=really good
Measure: Palatability score for the pediatric formulations as assessed by an age-appropriate questionnaire for encorafenib Time: Through Cycle 3 Day 1 in patients receiving the pediatric formulations in the Expansion Phase, 28 day cyclesThe purpose of this trial is to study the activity of vemurafenib in untreated melanoma brain metastases harboring B-Raf proto-oncogene, serine/threonine kinase (BRAF) mutations that are not amenable to stereotactic radiosurgery based on size, number of lesions or location, to measure cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) levels of vemurafenib as an indicator of central nervous system penetrance and to measure levels of vemurafenib in normal brain tissue and brain metastases in those in whom surgical management is feasible.
Per Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors Criteria (RECIST v1.0) for target lesions and assessed by MRI: Complete Response (CR), Disappearance of all target lesions; Partial Response (PR), >=30% decrease in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions; Overall Response (OR) = CR + PR.. Inclusion Criteria: - Biopsy proven metastatic melanoma with the B-raf V600E or V600K mutations. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Inclusion Criteria: - Biopsy proven metastatic melanoma with the B-raf V600E or V600K mutations. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Per Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors Criteria (RECIST v1.0) for target lesions and assessed by MRI: Complete Response (CR), Disappearance of all target lesions; Partial Response (PR), >=30% decrease in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions; Overall Response (OR) = CR + PR.
Measure: Activity of Vemurafenib in Untreated Brain Metastases Time: 1 yearThis phase II trial studies how well dabrafenib, trametinib, and spartalizumab works in treating patients with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation positive stage IIIB/C/D melanoma, who do not achieve a pathologic complete response after 8 weeks of dabrafenib and trametinib treatment. Patients who achieve a pathologic complete response after 8 weeks of neoadjuvant dabrafenib and trametinib will receive adjuvant dabrafenib and trametinib. Dabrafenib and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Immunotherapy with monoclonal antibodies, such as spartalizumab, may help the body's immune system attack the cancer, and may interfere with the ability of tumor cells to grow and spread. Giving dabrafenib, trametinib, and spartalizumab may help to control melanoma.
Dabrafenib, Trametinib, and Spartalizumab for the Treatment of BRAF V600E or V600K Mutation Positive Stage IIIB/C/D Melanoma This phase II trial studies how well dabrafenib, trametinib, and spartalizumab works in treating patients with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation positive stage IIIB/C/D melanoma, who do not achieve a pathologic complete response after 8 weeks of dabrafenib and trametinib treatment. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Dabrafenib, Trametinib, and Spartalizumab for the Treatment of BRAF V600E or V600K Mutation Positive Stage IIIB/C/D Melanoma This phase II trial studies how well dabrafenib, trametinib, and spartalizumab works in treating patients with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation positive stage IIIB/C/D melanoma, who do not achieve a pathologic complete response after 8 weeks of dabrafenib and trametinib treatment. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Only cases where a complete surgical resection with tumor- free margins can safely be achieved are defined as resectable - BRAF mutation-positive melanoma (V600E or V600K) based on report from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Act (CLIA) certified laboratory - Patients must have measurable disease, defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 - Patients who have been previously treated in the adjuvant setting with ipilimumab or interferon alpha or investigational vaccines for melanoma will be eligible for treatment after a 28 day wash-out period - Patients who have previously received anti PD-1 in the adjuvant setting will be allowed if it has been six months or longer since previous drug exposure - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1 - Women of childbearing potential, defined as all women physiologically capable of becoming pregnant will be required to use highly effective methods of contraception during dosing and for 150-days after stopping treatment with spartalizumab. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Will be estimated with a 95% confidence interval by using the Kaplan-Meier method. Cox proportional hazards regression models will be fit to assess the association between various clinical, demographic, and disease covariates and RFS separately by pathologic response group.
Measure: Relapse-free survival (RFS) rate Time: From the time of surgery to any recurrence event, assessed up to 12 monthsDescription: The rate of grade 3+ adverse events will be tabulated and presented by group.
Measure: Incidence of adverse events Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: Will be reported with 95% confidence intervals, and Cox regression models will be used to assess the association between similar covariates.
Measure: Overall survival Time: From treatment initiation to death, assessed up to 2 yearsDescription: Will be reported with 95% confidence intervals, and Cox regression models will be used to assess the association between similar covariates.
Measure: Distant metastasis-free survival Time: From treatment initiation to development of documented distant metastatic disease outside the loco-regional site of the primary tumor or lymph node metastasis, assessed up to 2 yearsDescription: Will be assessed quantitatively. Kruskal-Wallis tests will be used to compare these parameters at each time point between responders (pathological complete response [pCR]) and non-responders (no pCR). Changes in each parameter from baseline to surgery will also be compared between responders and non-responders.
Measure: Immune and molecular features of response and resistance Time: At baseline and at surgical resectionDescription: Markers and changes in markers over time will be compared between responders and non-responders by using Kruskal-Wallis tests. In addition, generalized linear mixed models may be used to model these markers over time.
Measure: Association between circulating blood markers and treatment response and relapse Time: At baseline, and assessed up to 2 yearsDescription: A survey will be provided to surgeons regarding the difficulty of surgery. These data will be subjective and will be summarized graphically as numbers permit.
Measure: Surgical resectability Time: Up to 2 yearsThis is a single arm phase II trial focused on how dabrafenib and trametinib before and after surgery works in treating patients with stage IIIB-C melanoma that has a specific mutation in the BRAF gene. Dabrafenib and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Giving dabrafenib and trametinib before surgery may make the tumor smaller and reduce the amount of normal tissue that needs to be removed. Giving dabrafenib and trametinib after surgery may kill any remaining tumor cells.
Safety parameters will be tabulated by using Fisher's exact tests for categorical variables and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests for continuous variables.. Inclusion Criteria: - Capable of giving written informed consent, which includes compliance with the requirements and restrictions listed in the consent form - Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IIIB/C melanoma by American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) version 7; the definition of resectability can be determined by the patient's surgical oncologist and verified via discussion at Multidisciplinary Tumor Conference attended by melanoma medical and surgical oncology staff; resectable tumors are defined as having no significant vascular, neural or bony involvement; only cases where a complete surgical resection with tumor-free margins can safely be achieved are defined as resectable; multicenter sites: confirmation of diagnosis via histology or cytology will be made by the local site pathologist; likewise, resectability determination will be made by the site's multidisciplinary team - Patients must be medically fit enough to undergo surgery as determined by the surgical oncology team - BRAF mutation-positive melanoma (V600E or V600K) based on report from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory - Patients must have measurable disease, defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1 - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1.5 x 10^9/L - Hemoglobin >= 9.5 g/dL - Platelets >= 100 x 10^9/L - Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) - Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN (isolated bilirubin > 1.5 x ULN is acceptable if bilirubin is fractionated and direct bilirubin < 35%) - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN ^1 - Albumin >= 2.5 g/dL - Creatinine =< 1.5 x ULN 2 OR calculated creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min OR 24-hour urine creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min - Male subjects must agree to use one of the contraception methods listed below; this criterion must be followed from the time of the first dose of study medication until 4 weeks after the last dose of study medication; however, it is advised that contraception be used for a total of 16 weeks following the last dose (based on the lifecycle of sperm); methods: a) abstinence, defined as sexual inactivity consistent with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the subject; periodic abstinence (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes) - Presence of active gastrointestinal disease or other condition that will interfere significantly with the absorption, distribution, metabolism, or excretion of drugs - Brain metastases or bone metastases; patients with brain metastases must have received treatment for them (resection or stereotactic radiosurgery [SRS]) and these metastatic foci must be stable for 8 weeks prior to starting study drug - Corrected QT (QTc) interval >= 480 msec (>= 500 msec for subjects with bundle branch block) - Uncontrolled arrhythmias - Class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Pregnant or lactating female - Unwillingness or inability to follow the procedures required in the protocol - Uncontrolled diabetes, hypertension or other medical conditions that may interfere with assessment of toxicity - Subjects with known glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency Inclusion Criteria: - Capable of giving written informed consent, which includes compliance with the requirements and restrictions listed in the consent form - Patients must have histologically or cytologically confirmed stage IIIB/C melanoma by American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) version 7; the definition of resectability can be determined by the patient's surgical oncologist and verified via discussion at Multidisciplinary Tumor Conference attended by melanoma medical and surgical oncology staff; resectable tumors are defined as having no significant vascular, neural or bony involvement; only cases where a complete surgical resection with tumor-free margins can safely be achieved are defined as resectable; multicenter sites: confirmation of diagnosis via histology or cytology will be made by the local site pathologist; likewise, resectability determination will be made by the site's multidisciplinary team - Patients must be medically fit enough to undergo surgery as determined by the surgical oncology team - BRAF mutation-positive melanoma (V600E or V600K) based on report from a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory - Patients must have measurable disease, defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1 - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1.5 x 10^9/L - Hemoglobin >= 9.5 g/dL - Platelets >= 100 x 10^9/L - Prothrombin time/international normalized ratio (PT/INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.5 x upper limit of normal (ULN) - Total bilirubin =< 1.5 x ULN (isolated bilirubin > 1.5 x ULN is acceptable if bilirubin is fractionated and direct bilirubin < 35%) - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x ULN ^1 - Albumin >= 2.5 g/dL - Creatinine =< 1.5 x ULN 2 OR calculated creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min OR 24-hour urine creatinine clearance >= 50 mL/min - Male subjects must agree to use one of the contraception methods listed below; this criterion must be followed from the time of the first dose of study medication until 4 weeks after the last dose of study medication; however, it is advised that contraception be used for a total of 16 weeks following the last dose (based on the lifecycle of sperm); methods: a) abstinence, defined as sexual inactivity consistent with the preferred and usual lifestyle of the subject; periodic abstinence (e.g. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes) - Presence of active gastrointestinal disease or other condition that will interfere significantly with the absorption, distribution, metabolism, or excretion of drugs - Brain metastases or bone metastases; patients with brain metastases must have received treatment for them (resection or stereotactic radiosurgery [SRS]) and these metastatic foci must be stable for 8 weeks prior to starting study drug - Corrected QT (QTc) interval >= 480 msec (>= 500 msec for subjects with bundle branch block) - Uncontrolled arrhythmias - Class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Pregnant or lactating female - Unwillingness or inability to follow the procedures required in the protocol - Uncontrolled diabetes, hypertension or other medical conditions that may interfere with assessment of toxicity - Subjects with known glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency BRAF V600E Mutation Present BRAF V600K Mutation Present Stage IIIB Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIC Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Melanoma Skin Neoplasms PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. Study enrollment was stopped in April 2016 due to a substantial improvement in RFS in Arm B vs Arm A treated patients. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: RFS will be compared between patients with a pathologic complete response (pCR) and patients without a pCR using a two-sided log-rank test.
Measure: Relapse-free survival (RFS) Time: Up to 12 monthsDescription: The association between RFS and OS and covariates of interest will be assessed using Cox proportional hazards regression analysis.
Measure: Overall survival (OS) Time: Up to 1 yearDescription: Logistic regression will be used to assess the association between the probability of complete pathologic response and clinical and disease covariates of interest.
Measure: Complete pathologic response Time: Up to 1 yearDescription: Safety parameters will be tabulated by using Fisher's exact tests for categorical variables and Wilcoxon rank-sum tests for continuous variables.
Measure: Incidence of adverse events Time: Up to 1 yearThis is a global, multi-centre, open-label, study of GSK2118436 conducted in up to 30 evaluable subjects with resectable, BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive metastatic melanoma to the brain. All subjects in this study are required to have accessible extracranial metastases and are agreeable to undergo repetitive biopsies. The first cohort of 15 subjects will receive dabrafenib orally 150mg twice daily (BID) for 7 to 14 days prior to surgery (Cohort A); the second cohort of 15 subjects will receive the combination of dabrafenib 150 mg BID and trametinib 2 mg once daily for 7 to 14 days prior to surgery (Cohort B). The primary purpose of this study is to determine levels and distribution of dabrafenib, its metabolites, and trametinib (Cohort B only) in parenchymal brain metastases, extracranial metastases, and peripheral blood (plasma) within two cohorts of subjects with BRAF V600E/K mutation-positive melanoma that has metastasized to the brain. All subjects will be followed for survival and new anti-cancer therapy for a total of two years or until death or the subject wishes to withdraw from further follow-up.
Dabrafenib/Trametinib, BRAF or BRAF AND MEK Pre-op With BRAF and MEK Post-op, Phase IIB, Melanoma With Brain Mets,Biomarkers and Metabolites This is a global, multi-centre, open-label, study of GSK2118436 conducted in up to 30 evaluable subjects with resectable, BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive metastatic melanoma to the brain. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
It was planned to be reported for the V600E and V600K analysis populations for each cohort and also aggregately if appropriate. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Inclusion Criteria: - Signed written informed consent - Histologically-confirmed metastatic melanoma (Stage IV), carrying BRAF V600E or V600K mutation as determined by testing certified for clinical diagnostic purposes. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
multiple sclerosis) - A history of known Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), Hepatitis B Virus (HBV), or Hepatitis C Virus (HCV) infection - Current acute infection requiring intravenous antibiotics - A history of known glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency - The history or evidence of following cardiac abnormalities: - Corrected QT (QTc) interval using Bazett's Formula; (QTcB) >= 480 msecs - A history of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction or unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within 6 months prior to randomization - Coronary angioplasty or stenting within the past 12 weeks - Class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= Grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (ECHO) - History of or evidence of clinically significant uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias - Treatment refractory hypertension defined as a blood pressure of systolic >140 mmHg and/or diastolic >90 mm Hg which cannot be controlled by anti-hypertensive therapy - Subjects with intra-cardiac defibrillators or permanent pacemakers - Pregnant, lactating or breastfeeding females - Any serious and/or unstable pre-existing medical, psychiatric disorder or other conditions that could interfere with subject's safety, obtaining informed consent or compliance to the study procedures - Have a known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncrasy to drugs chemically related to GSK2118436 or excipients that contraindicate their participation Inclusion Criteria: - Signed written informed consent - Histologically-confirmed metastatic melanoma (Stage IV), carrying BRAF V600E or V600K mutation as determined by testing certified for clinical diagnostic purposes. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Blood samples for pharmacokinetic analysis of dabrafenib and its active metabolites, including hydroxy-, carboxy-, and desmethyl-dabrafenib were collected on day of surgical resection of the brain metastasis(es), Two samples were collected before surgery and 2 samples after surgery with one hour gap in between. Upon collection blood was placed on wet ice. Plasma was isolated within 60 minutes of collection and frozen at -20 degree celsius.
Measure: Concentrations of Dabrafenib, Its Metabolites Hydroxy-, Carboxy- and Desmethyl-dabrafenib in Peripheral Blood (Plasma) Time: Pre-surgery and post-surgery on Day 15Description: Concentrations of dabrafenib, its metabolites, hydroxy-, carboxy, and desmethyl-dabrafenib, and possibly other drug-related species were quantified in the pharmacokinetic tissue sample by an investigative Liquid chromatography- mass spectrometry (LC-MS)/MS method. The spatial distribution of dabrafenib, its metabolites, hydroxy-, carboxy, and desmethyl-dabrafenib and possibly other drug-related species in the tissue samples were determined using an investigative matrix assisted laser desorption ionization (MALDI) analysis method. Parenchymal brain metastases and extracranial metastases using MALDI imaging was not determined for all participants (completed by GSK for the first two participants enrolled)
Measure: Concentrations of Dabrafenib, Its Metabolites Hydroxy-, Carboxy- and Desmethyl-dabrafenib in Parenchymal Brain Metastases Time: Day 15Description: Blood samples for pharmacokinetic analysis of dabrafenib and its active metabolites, including hydroxy-, carboxy-, and desmethyl-dabrafenib and trametinib (as appropriate), were planned but not collected.
Measure: Concentrations of Dabrafenib, Its Metabolites Hydroxy-, Carboxy- and Desmethyl-dabrafenib) and Trametinib (Cohort B Only) in CSF Samples. Time: Pre-surgery and post-surgery on Day 15Description: Concentrations of dabrafenib, its metabolites hydroxy-, carboxy- and desmethyl-dabrafenib) and trametinib in CSF (in participants who agree for optional collection of CSF at the time of brain tumor resection). Optional collection of CSF was obtained in the operating room on the day of brain metastasis resection. CSF samples for only one participant were collected and analyzed.
Measure: Concentrations of Dabrafenib, Its Metabolites Hydroxy-, Carboxy- and Desmethyl-dabrafenib) in Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF) Samples Time: Day 15Description: Changes in MAPK pathway markers in paired extracranial biopsies taken pre-treatment, during craniotomy, and at disease progression, and changes in markers between post-operative intracranial and extracranial biopsies was planned but not performed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment.
Measure: Number of Participants With Changes in Mitogen-activated Protein Kinase (MAPK) Pathway Markers Time: Up to Day 15Description: Changes in the radiographic characteristics of the tumors were planned to be compared to (1) levels of dabrafenib, its metabolites and trametinib (where appropriate) in the brain metastases, plasma, and CSF, and (2) MAPK pathway activation status in tumors at the time of surgery. Results were planned to be compared to the analysis of early clinical responses in extracranial metastases, as determined by the Positron emission tomography (PET-CT) imaging. This analysis was planned but not performed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment
Measure: Number of Participants With Changes in Radiographic Tumors Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: The change from Baseline to the pre-surgery intracranial disease assessment in the SLD of intracranial target lesions was planned to be calculated as a percentage change from the baseline SLD. It was planned to be reported for the V600E and V600K analysis populations for each cohort and also aggregately if appropriate. This analysis was planned but not performed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment.
Measure: Percent Change From Baseline to Pre-surgery in the Sum of the Longest Diameters (SLD) of Intracranial Target Lesions Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: The maximum change from Baseline in the SLD of unresected intracranial target lesions was planned to be calculated as a percentage change from the baseline SLD. It was planned to be reported for the V600E and V600K analysis populations for each cohort and also aggregately if appropriate. This analysis was planned but not performed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment.
Measure: Maximum Percent Change From Baseline in the SLD of Unresected Intracranial Target Lesions Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: Overall Extracranial Response Rate was defined as the percentage of participants with Complete response (CR) or Partial response (PR) at anytime as per modified Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST). The best overall response is the best response recorded from the start of the treatment until disease progression/recurrence and is determined programmatically based on the investigator's assessment of response at each time point. Overall Extracranial Response Rate was planned but not analyzed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment.
Measure: Percentage of Participants With Overall Extracranial Response Rate in Unresected Lesions Time: Approximately 2 years or death whichever occurs firstDescription: Overall survival, defined as the time from first dose of study treatment to death for any reason, was planned to summarize using Kaplan-Meier quartile estimates along with two sided 95% confidence intervals. But were not performed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment.
Measure: Percentage of Participants With Overall Survival Time: Approximately 2 years or death whichever occurs firstDescription: Vital sign measurements including temperature, respiratory rate, systolic and diastolic blood pressure, and pulse rate were planned to be performed but were neither summarized nor listed as the study was terminated.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Vital Signs Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: A complete physical examination was planned which included assessments of the head, eyes, ears, nose, throat, skin, thyroid, lungs, cardiovascular, abdomen (liver and spleen), lymph nodes, and extremities. Height and weight was also planned to be measured and recorded. A complete physical exam including a thorough genitourinary examination for female participants, inspection of the head and neck region, and digital rectal examination for both male and female participants was planned to be performed at Screening, and Month 12 or at discontinuation if discontinuation occurs prior to Month 12. If the participants had a genitourinary and rectal exam within 6 months of screening, these assessments need not to be repeated at screening. But data for physical examinations were not summarized and listed as the study was terminated.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Physical Examinations Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: 112-lead ECGs were planned to be obtained at screening during the study using an ECG machine that automatically calculates the heart rate and measures PR, QRS, QT, and corrected QT (QTc) intervals. At each assessment a 12-lead ECG was planned to be performed by qualified personnel at the site after at least a five-minute rest with the participants in a semi-recumbent or supine position. But data for 12-lead ECGs were not summarized and listed as the study was terminated.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal 12-lead Electrocardiograms (ECG) Time: ScreeningDescription: ECHO include an evaluation for Left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF) and both right- and left-sided valvular lesions. ECHO was planned to be performed at screening, Week 8 and every 16 weeks till discontinuation. data for ECHO was not summarized and listed as the study was terminated.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Echocardiogram (ECHO) Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: Laboratory assessments included parameters like Hematology, Standard Chemistry, Coagulation, Serum Pregnancy. Assessment of these parameters were planned to be performed by the central laboratory on screening, Day prior to surgery, Every 4 weeks after restart and Discontinuation, but were not analyzed as the study was terminated due to low enrollment.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Clinical Laboratory Assessments Time: Up to 2 yearsDescription: AE is defined as any untoward medical occurrence in a participant or clinical investigation participant, temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product, whether or not considered related to the medicinal product. AE were collected from the time the first dose of study treatment is administered until 30 days following discontinuation of study treatment regardless of initiation of a new cancer therapy using Medical Dictionary for Regulatory Activities (MedDRA)
Measure: Number of Participants With Adverse Events (AE) and Serious Adverse Events (SAE) Time: Up to 2 yearsThe goal of this clinical research study is to learn if durvalumab and trametinib can help to control microsatellite stable (MSS) colorectal cancer. The safety of these drugs will also be studied. This is an investigational study. Durvalumab is FDA approved and commercially available for the treatment of previously treated advanced bladder cancer. Trametinib is FDA approved in combination with another drug called dabrafenib for the treatment of unresectable or metastatic melanoma with BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K. It is investigational to use durvalumab and trametinib to treat MSS colorectal cancer. Up to 56 participants will be enrolled in this study. All will take part at MD Anderson.
Trametinib is FDA approved in combination with another drug called dabrafenib for the treatment of unresectable or metastatic melanoma with BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: MTD defined as highest dose level with less than 2 patients with dose limiting toxicity (DLT) out of at least six patients in the cohort. DLT defined as any adverse event (AE) of severity grade 3 or 4 (including serious or life-threatening) considered possibly, probably or definitely related to the combination of Durvalumab and Trametinib determined by NCI CTCAEv4.03.
Measure: Maximum Tolerated Dose (MTD) of Durvalumab and Trametinib in MSS Metastatic Colon Cancer Time: 28 daysThis is a single-centre, open-label Phase II study of the investigational drugs binimetinib and encorafenib that will be taken my mouth (orally) daily in adult patient with advanced and/or metastatic solid tumors for which no other standard therapy is available. The main purpose is to evaluate the objective response rate (ORR) of the study drugs in the growth of the cancer in patients with class 2 and 3 BRAF mutations.
6. Malignancy must express one of the following BRAF alterations: BRAF mutation affecting codon: 241, 257, 367, 462, 463, 464, 466, 467, 469, 485, 581, 586, 594, 595, 596, 597 598, 599, 601; V600 BRAF mutations: V600K (for any malignancy except melanoma), V600D, V600M, V600R; BRAF deletions ie. --- V600K ---
Any patient with a tumor expressing a BRAF V600E mutation 2. Any patient with melanoma whose tumor expresses a BRAF V600K mutation 3. Prior therapy with any BRAF inhibitor (e.g., encorafenib, dabrafenib, vemurafenib) and/or any MEK inhibitor (e.g., binimetinib, trametinib, cobimetinib). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
This trial studies how well dabrafenib, trametinib, and intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) work together in treating patients with BRAF mutated anaplastic thyroid cancer. Dabrafenib and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. Radiation therapy uses high energy beams to kill tumor cells and shrink tumors. Giving dabrafenib, trametinib, and IMRT together may kill more tumor cells.
- Presence of BRAF mutation (V600E or V600K) in tumor tissue. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
BRAF NP_004324.2:p.V600E BRAF V600K Mutation Present Thyroid Gland Anaplastic Carcinoma Thyroid Neoplasms Thyroid Carcinoma, Anaplastic Carcinoma Thyroid Diseases PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. To assess the safety and tolerability (maximum tolerated dose [MTD]) of concurrent intensity modulated radiation therapy (IMRT) and BRAF-MEK inhibitors dabrafenib and trametinib in patients with BRAF-mutated anaplastic thyroid cancer. --- V600K ---
Description: Will be defined as the proportion of patients who have a partial response (PR), or complete response (CR) within the first 4 weeks of IMRT. Complete response (CR) and partial response (PR) will be defined by Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1. Will be calculated with the exact binomial 95% confidence intervals.
Measure: Objective response rate Time: 1 yearDescription: Will be evaluated by RECIST criteria for disease limited to the radiation field (neck) following the first set of scans after completion of IMRT. Estimated by Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Time to progression for local disease recurrence Time: 1 yearDescription: Estimated by Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Overall survival Time: From the start date of the treatment to the date of death, assessed up to 1 yearDescription: Estimated by Kaplan-Meier method.
Measure: Progression free survival Time: Time from start of treatment to time of progression or death, whichever occurs first, assessed up to 1 yearThe goal of this study is to estimate the efficacy of encorafenib and binimetinib as measured by radiographic response in recurrent high-grade primary brain tumors.
High Grade Glioma BRAF V600E BRAF V600K Anaplastic Astrocytoma Anaplastic Pleomorphic Xanthoastrocytoma Gliosarcoma Glioblastoma Glioblastoma Astrocytoma Gliosarcoma Primary Objective Estimate the efficacy of combination treatment with encorafenib and binimetinib, as measured by response rate (RANO criteria), in patients with recurrent BRAF V600E/K-mutated malignant glioma (MG) and anaplastic pleomorphic xanthoastrocytoma (PXAs). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Number of participants from each treatment cohort with response as defined by Response Assessment in Neuro-oncology (RANO) criteria: Complete Response (CR)= no change in size of T1-gadolinium-enhancing (T1-Gd+) disease, stable or reduced T2/FLAIR signal, no new lesion, no corticosteroid use, and stable or improved clinical status; Partial Response (PR)= ≥50% change in size of T1-Gd+ disease, stable or reduced T2/FLAIR signal, no new lesion, stable or reduced corticosteroid use, and stable or improved clinical status; Stable Disease (SD)= <50% reduction to <25% increase size of T1-Gd+ disease, stable or reduced T2/FLAIR signal, no new lesion, stable or reduced corticosteroid use, and stable or improved clinical status; Progressive Disease (PD)= ≥25% increase size of T1-Gd+ disease, or increased T2/FLAIR signal, or presence of new lesion, or worsening clinical status.
Measure: Tumor radiographic response per RANO for 3 treatment cohorts Time: 1 yearDescription: Progressive Disease (PD)= ≥25% increase size of T1-Gd+ disease, or increased T2/FLAIR signal, or presence of new lesion, or worsening clinical status
Measure: Progression free survival for 3 treatment cohorts Time: up to 1 yearDescription: median overall survival
Measure: Overall Survival Time: up to 2 yearsDescription: Time from response to progression. Response is defined by RANO: Complete Response (CR)= no change in size of T1-gadolinium-enhancing (T1-Gd+) disease, stable or reduced T2/FLAIR signal, no new lesion, no corticosteroid use, and stable or improved clinical status; Partial Response (PR)= ≥50% change in size of T1-Gd+ disease, stable or reduced T2/FLAIR signal, no new lesion, stable or reduced corticosteroid use, and stable or improved clinical status; Stable Disease (SD)= <50% reduction to <25% increase size of T1-Gd+ disease, stable or reduced T2/FLAIR signal, no new lesion, stable or reduced corticosteroid use, and stable or improved clinical status; Progressive Disease (PD)= ≥25% increase size of T1-Gd+ disease, or increased T2/FLAIR signal, or presence of new lesion, or worsening clinical status.
Measure: Duration of response Time: up to 1 yearThe purpose of this study is to evaluate the safety and tolerability of humanized IgG4 (kappa) isotype monoclonal antibody against CEACAM1 (CM-24 [MK-6018]), administered intravenously as monotherapy and in combination with Pembrolizumab (MK-3475), in participants with selected advanced or recurrent malignancies. Escalating multiple doses will be evaluated to determine the recommended dose for Phase 2 clinical studies.
- Participants in the Monotherapy Expansion Cohort must have one of the following advanced or recurrent malignancies: cutaneous melanoma showing primary progression following treatment with an anti-programmed cell death (PD) or anti-PDL1 regimen; or anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 treatment-naïve colorectal or gastric cancer, including gastroesophageal junction cancer of Siewert Type II and Type III. - Participants in the Combination Expansion Cohorts must have one of the following advanced or recurrent malignancies: non-small cell lung adenocarcinoma or cutaneous melanoma showing primary progression following treatment with an anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 regimen; or anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 treatment-naïve colorectal or gastric cancer, including gastroesophageal junction cancer of Siewert Type II and Type III. - Melanoma with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive melanoma must have progressed on, or were intolerant to, prior BRAF- or MEK-inhibitor therapy - Must have at least 1 measurable lesion per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 with progressing or new tumors since last antitumor therapy - Must have adequate hematologic, renal, and liver function - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1 - Females must not be pregnant (negative human chorionic gonadotropin test within 72 hours prior to receiving the first dose of study medication) or breastfeeding - Women of childbearing potential and male participants must agree to use adequate contraception throughout the study and for up to 180 days after study treatment - An estimated life expectancy of at least 3 months - Must consent to provide an archival tumor biopsy sample at any time point from screening to study exit - Must consent to allow the acquisition of new tissue biopsy samples during the study Exclusion Criteria: - History of severe hypersensitivity reactions or immune related adverse events to other monoclonal antibodies - History of other active malignancy within the prior 2 years - History of insulin-dependent or uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus - History of inflammatory bowel disease - Autoimmune disorders - Known HIV and/or Hepatitis B or C infections - Known systemic bleeding or platelet disorder - Receipt of live vaccines with 4 weeks (28 days) of study - History or evidence of non-infectious pneumonitis that required steroids or current pneumonitis Inclusion Criteria: - Males and females ≥18 years of age - Participants in the Dose Escalation portion must have one of the following advanced or recurrent malignancies: gastrointestinal (colorectal or gastric); ovarian; melanoma; non-small cell lung adenocarcinoma; or bladder. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
- Participants in the Monotherapy Expansion Cohort must have one of the following advanced or recurrent malignancies: cutaneous melanoma showing primary progression following treatment with an anti-programmed cell death (PD) or anti-PDL1 regimen; or anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 treatment-naïve colorectal or gastric cancer, including gastroesophageal junction cancer of Siewert Type II and Type III. - Participants in the Combination Expansion Cohorts must have one of the following advanced or recurrent malignancies: non-small cell lung adenocarcinoma or cutaneous melanoma showing primary progression following treatment with an anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 regimen; or anti-PD1 or anti-PD-L1 treatment-naïve colorectal or gastric cancer, including gastroesophageal junction cancer of Siewert Type II and Type III. - Melanoma with BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive melanoma must have progressed on, or were intolerant to, prior BRAF- or MEK-inhibitor therapy - Must have at least 1 measurable lesion per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 with progressing or new tumors since last antitumor therapy - Must have adequate hematologic, renal, and liver function - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status 0-1 - Females must not be pregnant (negative human chorionic gonadotropin test within 72 hours prior to receiving the first dose of study medication) or breastfeeding - Women of childbearing potential and male participants must agree to use adequate contraception throughout the study and for up to 180 days after study treatment - An estimated life expectancy of at least 3 months - Must consent to provide an archival tumor biopsy sample at any time point from screening to study exit - Must consent to allow the acquisition of new tissue biopsy samples during the study Exclusion Criteria: - History of severe hypersensitivity reactions or immune related adverse events to other monoclonal antibodies - History of other active malignancy within the prior 2 years - History of insulin-dependent or uncontrolled Diabetes Mellitus - History of inflammatory bowel disease - Autoimmune disorders - Known HIV and/or Hepatitis B or C infections - Known systemic bleeding or platelet disorder - Receipt of live vaccines with 4 weeks (28 days) of study - History or evidence of non-infectious pneumonitis that required steroids or current pneumonitis Non-small Cell Lung Carcinoma (NSCLC) Melanoma Bladder Cancer Colorectal Cancer Gastric Cancer Ovarian Cancer Carcinoma, Non-Small-Cell Lung null --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
This phase I trial studies the side effects and best dose of onalespib when given together with dabrafenib and trametinib in treating patients with BRAF-mutant melanoma or solid tumors that have spread to another place in the body (metastatic) or cannot be removed by surgery. Onalespib, dabrafenib, and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth.
m^2 - Potassium > 3 and < 5.5 mEq/L - Magnesium > 1.2 and < 2.5 mEq - Left ventricular >= institutional lower limit of normal (LLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) ejection fraction - Women of child-bearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 14 days prior to randomization and agree to use effective contraception (barrier method of birth control, or abstinence; hormonal contraception is not allowed) from 14 days prior to randomization, throughout the treatment period, and for 4 months after the last dose of study treatment; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately - Therapeutic level dosing of warfarin can be used with close monitoring of PT/INR by the site; exposure may be decreased due to enzyme induction when on treatment, thus warfarin dosing may need to be adjusted based upon PT/INR; consequently, when discontinuing dabrafenib, warfarin exposure may be increased and thus close monitoring via PT/INR and warfarin dose adjustments must be made as clinically appropriate; prophylactic low dose warfarin may be given to maintain central catheter patency - Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document - Able to swallow and retain oral medication, and must not have any clinically significant gastrointestinal abnormalities that may alter absorption such as malabsorption syndrome or major resection of the stomach or bowels Exclusion Criteria: - Patients who received prior systemic anti-cancer therapy (chemotherapy with delayed toxicity, extensive radiation therapy, immunotherapy, biologic therapy, or vaccine therapy) within the last 3 weeks prior to day 1 of cycle 1; patients are permitted to be on dabrafenib and trametinib standard of care at start of therapy without wash-out period prior to day 1 of cycle 1; dosing will change to protocol determined dose levels on day 1 of cycle 1 - Patients must not have received prior HSP90 inhibitor therapy - Patients who are receiving any other investigational agents; patients who have taken an investigational drug within 28 days or 5 half-lives (minimum 14 days), whichever is shorter, prior to randomization - Patients with history of activating RAS mutation positive tumors regardless of interval from current study; however, patients may have concurrent BRAFV600 and RAS mutations in the tumor to be treated with protocol therapy - Patients must have no clinical evidence of leptomeningeal or brain metastasis causing spinal cord compression that are symptomatic or untreated or not stable for >= 4 weeks (must be documented by imaging) or requiring corticosteroids; subjects on a stable dose of corticosteroids > 1 month or who have been off of corticosteroids for at least 2 weeks can be enrolled with approval of the Cancer Therapy Evaluation Program (CTEP) medical monitor; subjects must also be off of enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants for > 4 weeks - History of known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to AT13387, dabrafenib, or trametinib, or excipients or to dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) - Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active serious infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, uncontrolled diabetes, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements - Pregnant women are excluded from this study; breastfeeding should be discontinued prior to the mother being treated with the study drugs - Patients known to be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients and on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible - History of another malignancy other than the study indication under this trial within 5 years of study enrollment; does not apply to subjects who underwent successful definitive resection of basal or squamous cell carcinoma of the skin, superficial bladder cancer, in situ cervical cancer, in situ breast cancer, or other in situ cancers - Exception: patients with history of RAS mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; prospective RAS testing is not required; however, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility - History of interstitial lung disease or pneumonitis - History or current evidence/risk of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or retinal pigment epithelial detachment (RPED): - History of RVO or RPED, or predisposing factors to RVO or RPED (e.g., uncontrolled glaucoma or ocular hypertension, uncontrolled systemic disease such as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or history of hyperviscosity or hypercoagulability syndromes) - Visible retinal pathology as assessed by ophthalmic exam that is considered a risk factor for RVO or RPED such as evidence of new optic disc cupping, evidence of new visual field defects, and intraocular pressure > 21 mm mercury (Hg) - History or evidence of cardiovascular risk including any of the following: - An average of the three most recent QT intervals corrected for heart rate using the Bazett's formula QTcB >= 460 msec - History or evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled arrhythmias (exception: patients with controlled atrial fibrillation for > 30 days prior to randomization are eligible) - History of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction and unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within 6 months prior to randomization - History or evidence of current >= class II congestive heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Treatment-refractory hypertension defined as a blood pressure of systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic > 90 mmHg which cannot be controlled by anti-hypertensive therapy - Abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by echocardiogram (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study); subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on study - Prior placement of an implantable defibrillator - History of or identification on screening imaging of intracardiac metastases - No known active infection with hepatitis B virus (HBV), or hepatitis C virus (HCV); patients with chronic or cleared HBV infection and HCV infection are eligible - Current use of a prohibited medication; the following medications or non-drug therapies are prohibited: - Other anti-cancer therapy while on study treatment; (note: megestrol [Megace] if used as an appetite stimulant is allowed) - Concurrent treatment with bisphosphonates is permitted; however, treatment must be initiated prior to the first dose of study therapy; prophylactic use of bisphosphonates in patients without bone disease is not permitted, except for the treatment of osteoporosis - The concurrent use of all herbal supplements is prohibited during the study (including, but not limited to, St. John's wort, kava, ephedra [ma huang], ginkgo biloba, dehydroepiandrosterone [DHEA], yohimbe, saw palmetto, or ginseng) - Current use of a prohibited medication; patients receiving any medications or substances that are strong inhibitors or inducers of CYP3A or CYP2C8 are ineligible; current use of, or intended ongoing treatment with: herbal remedies (e.g., St. John's wort), or strong inhibitors or inducers of P-glycoprotein (Pgp) or breast cancer resistance protein 1 (Bcrp1) should also be excluded BRAF V600E Mutation Present BRAF V600K Mutation Present Metastatic Malignant Solid Neoplasm Metastatic Melanoma Stage III Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIA Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIB Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIC Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IV Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v6 and v7 Unresectable Solid Neoplasm Neoplasms Melanoma Skin Neoplasms PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. To determine the maximum tolerated dose (MTD), toxicity, and safety profile of onalespib (AT13387) given weekly in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib in patients with BRAF-mutant metastatic or unresectable solid tumors. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Toxicities will be graded according to the National Cancer Institute Common Toxicity Criteria for Adverse Events version 5.0. Toxicity rates will be summarized with a 90% exact binomial confidence interval.
Measure: Maximum tolerated dose of onalespib in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib, defined as the highest dose level at which 0 or 1 of six patients has experienced a dose limiting toxicity Time: 28 daysDescription: The response rate will be presented as a point estimate with a 90% exact binomial confidence interval.
Measure: Objective response rate, defined as the proportion of patients with complete or partial response as their best response to therapy assessed according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1 Time: The date of first dose of trial therapy and the date of objectively documented disease progression or cessation of trial therapy, whichever occurs first, assessed up to 28 days after end of treatmentDescription: The distribution of progression-free survival will be summarized using the product-limit method of Kaplan-Meier.
Measure: Progression-free survival Time: Time from start of treatment to time of progression or death, whichever occurs first, assessed up to 28 days after end of treatmentDescription: Median times for each endpoint will be presented with two-sided, 90% confidence intervals estimated using log(-log[survival]) methodology. Kaplan-Meier estimates of 6-month progression-free survival will also be presented with two-sided, 90% confidence intervals.
Measure: Progression-free survival Time: Time from start of treatment to time of progression or death, whichever occurs first, assessed at 6 monthsDescription: The distribution of overall survival will be summarized using the product-limit method of Kaplan-Meier. Kaplan-Meier estimates of 1-year overall survival will also be presented with two-sided, 90% confidence intervals.
Measure: Overall survival Time: 1 yearDescription: The one-year disease-free survival after treatment will be estimated using the product-limit methods of Kaplan-Meier, and presented with 90% confidence intervals.
Measure: Disease-free survival Time: 1 yearDescription: Descriptive statistics including mean, standard deviation, coefficient of variation, geometric mean, median, minimum and maximum will be computed for each pharmacokinetic variable; descriptive statistics for natural-log transformed pharmacokinetic variables will also be provided.
Measure: Pharmacokinetic parameters (maximal plasma or serum concentration, area under the curve to the last collection point, area under the curve for dose interval, and time of maximal concentration) Time: Course 1, days 1 and 15 (pre-dose, 1, 2, 4, 6, 8, 24 hour post-dose) and day 1 in courses 2, 4, 8, and 12 (pre-dose)Description: Will be performed to assess how changes in the expression of the key signaling proteins relate to patient response.
Measure: Changes in the expression of the key signaling proteins Time: Baseline to 7 days (1 week)This is a dose-seeking and efficacy study of combined BRAF Inhibitor Vemurafenib and High-dose Interferon alfa-2b for therapy of advanced melanoma.
- BRAF V600E and V600K mutated - Cutaneous squamous cell carcinomas (SCC) lesions identified at baseline must be excised. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: At each dose level, the number of patients experiencing Adverse Events over their course of treatment will be characterized by type of Adverse Event and grade using NCI CTCAE (v4.0), and by time of onset in relation to the first day of therapy.
Measure: Number of Participants with Adverse Events to determine Ph II dose Time: 12-24 months from study startDescription: •Progression Free Survival will be evaluated at 6 months using the Kaplan-Meier method. Overall Survival will be measured from the initial date of treatment to the recorded date of death, and analyzed similarly to Progression Free Survival. Overall Survival will also be analyzed with the Kaplan-Meier method. The complete response rate and partial response rate will be estimated by the proportion of patients with a best response respectively by RECIST criteria.
Measure: Progression Free and overall survival (Efficacy) Time: 48 monthsDescription: Melanoma metastases removed from patients pretreatment, post-BRAFI alone and Post B-RAF+ will be analyzed for expression of IFNAR1 and immunologically relevant molecules such as HLA antigens, APM components and MA; these results will be correlated with T cell infiltration. In addition the metastases will be tested for extent of melanoma cell proliferation and apoptosis.
Measure: Improve tumor STAT signaling Time: 48 monthsThis phase I trial studies the side effects and best dose of lapatinib when given together with dabrafenib in treating patients with thyroid cancer that cannot be removed by surgery and has not responded to previous treatment (refractory). Dabrafenib and lapatinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth.
Mean percentage change is calculated and compared with respect to each genotype.. Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have histologically confirmed malignancy that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective - Patients must have measurable and histologically or cytologically confirmed thyroid cancer with a BRAF V600E or V600K (c. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
1799 T to A and c.1799_1800TG>AA) mutation that is not considered curable by surgery; confirmation will be done at Memorial Sloan Kettering (MSK); only tumors with a BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutation will be eligible for the clinical study; BRAF status will be assessed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) certified laboratory; BRAF status may also be tested with any Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test (such as Cobas 4800 BRAF V600 Mutation Test) - The tumor is considered to be radioactive-iodine refractory by any of the following criteria: - Total lifetime dose of radioactive iodine > 600 mCi - Absent or insufficient radioactive iodine uptake in either all lesions or an index lesion which has never been resected or received external beam radiation therapy as documented on a radioactive iodine scan (insufficient uptake must be confirmed by either an endocrinologist or nuclear medicine physician) - Progression of disease (by imaging or thyroglobulin) within 6 months of radioactive iodine treatment - Fludeoxyglucose F 18 (FDG)-avid lesion (standard uptake variable maximum [SUVmax] >= 3) on a FDG-positron emission tomography (PET) scan - No recent treatment for thyroid cancer as defined as: - No radioactive iodine therapy is allowed if given < 3 months prior to initiation of this protocol therapy; a diagnostic study using < 10 mCi of radioactive iodine (RAI) is not considered radioactive iodine therapy - No external beam radiation therapy < 4 weeks prior to initiation of therapy on this protocol - No chemotherapy or targeted therapy (e.g., tyrosine kinase inhibitor) is allowed < 4 weeks prior to the initiation of therapy - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0-1 or Karnofsky >= 60% - Life expectancy of greater than 2 months - Able to swallow and retain oral medication and must not have any clinically significant gastrointestinal abnormalities that may alter absorption such as malabsorption syndrome or major resection of the stomach or bowels - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1.2 x 10^9/L, within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL, within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Platelets >= 100 x 10^9/L, within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) except subjects with known Gilbert's syndrome, within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x institutional ULN, within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Blood creatinine =< 1.5 mg/dL (if blood creatinine is > 1.5 mg/dL, calculate creatinine clearance using standard Cockcroft and Gault method or using a 24 hour urine collection for creatinine; creatinine clearance must be > 50 mL/min), within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.3 x institutional ULN; subjects receiving anticoagulation treatment may be allowed to participate with PT/INR/PTT established within the therapeutic range prior to randomization; subjects will be eligible if it is determined by a hematologist that the cause is not associated with clinical bleeding (e.g., deficiency of factor XII), within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Left ventricular ejection fraction >= institutional lower limit of normal (LLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO), within 2 weeks of the first dose of study treatment - Women of childbearing potential must have a negative serum pregnancy test within 7 days of the first dose of study treatment - The effects of dabrafenib on the developing human fetus are unknown; for this reason and because other therapeutic agents used in this trial are known to be teratogenic, women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (barrier method of birth control, or abstinence; hormonal contraception is not allowed due to drug-drug interactions which can render hormonal contraceptives ineffective) for the duration of study participation, and for at least 2 weeks after treatment with dabrafenib; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately - Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document - Patient must agree to allow 3 separate biopsies of any malignant lesion; biopsies do not need to be done if: - Tumor is not considered accessible by either the investigator or the person performing the biopsy (it is determined the risk is too high due to location near vital organs or too great of a risk of an adverse event) - Patient is on anticoagulation and it would be unsafe to temporarily hold the anticoagulation - Consent of the principal investigator (PI) not to have a biopsy done - A minimum of 8 subjects must participate in the biopsy part of the study Exclusion Criteria: - Prior systemic anti-cancer therapy (chemotherapy with delayed toxicity, extensive radiation therapy, immunotherapy, biologic therapy, or vaccine therapy) within the last 3 weeks; chemotherapy regimens without delayed toxicity within the last 2 weeks preceding the first dose of study treatment - Use of other investigational drugs within 28 days (or five half-lives, whichever is shorter; with a minimum of 14 days from the last dose) preceding the first dose of study treatment and during the study - Current use of a prohibited medication; patients receiving any medications or substances that are strong inhibitors or inducers of cytochrome P450, family 3, subfamily A (CYP3A) or cytochrome P450, family 2, subfamily C, polypeptide 8 (CYP2C8) are ineligible; current use of, or intended ongoing treatment with: herbal remedies (e.g., St. John's wort), or strong inhibitors or inducers of P-glycoprotein (Pgp) or breast cancer resistance protein 1 (Bcrp1) should also be excluded; it is important to regularly consult a frequently-updated list of these agents; as part of the enrollment/informed consent procedures, the patient will be counseled on the risk of interactions with other agents, and what to do if new medications need to be prescribed or if the patient is considering a new over-the-counter medicine or herbal product - Prohibited: strong inducers of CYP3A or CYP2C8, since concentrations of dabrafenib may be decreased - Antibiotics: rifamycin class agents (e.g., rifampin, rifabutin, rifapentine) - Anticonvulsant: carbamazepine, oxcarbazepine phenobarbital, phenytoin, s-mephenytoin - Miscellaneous: bosentan, St. John's wort - Prohibited: strong inhibitors of CYP3A or CYP2C8, since concentrations of dabrafenib may be increased - Antibiotics: clarithromycin, telithromycin, troleandomycin - Antidepressant: nefazodone - Antifungals: itraconazole, ketoconazole, posaconazole, voriconazole - Hyperlipidemia: gemfibrozil - Antiretroviral: ritonavir, saquinavir, atazanavir - Miscellaneous: conivaptan - Unresolved toxicity of National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events, version 4.0 (NCI CTCAE v4.0) grade 2 or higher from previous anti-cancer therapy, except alopecia; in specific cases, will be allowed with permission from the principal investigator - Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients on antiviral drugs and/or cluster of differentiation (CD)4 count is inadequate (< 500); if neither condition exists, HIV-positive patients are eligible - Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to, ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements - A history of hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection (with the exception of cleared HBV and HCV infection, which will be allowed) - Presence of an invasive malignancy other than the study indication under this trial within 3 years of study enrollment except for carcinoma in situ CIS, squamous cell carcinomas of the skin, or basal cell carcinoma of the skin; a diagnosis of an invasive malignancy within 3 years is allowed if both the cure rate is felt to be > 80% and there has been no evidence of disease in the past year - Patients with a history of RAS mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility - Brain metastases that are symptomatic or requiring corticosteroids (except inhaled); subjects must also be off of enzyme-inducing anticonvulsants for > 4 weeks - History or evidence of cardiovascular risks including any of the following: - History of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction or unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within the past 24 weeks prior to randomization - History or evidence of current class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Intra-cardiac defibrillators - Abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by ECHO; (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study); subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on study - History or evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias; clarification: subjects with atrial fibrillation controlled for > 30 days prior to dosing are eligible - Treatment refractory hypertension defined as a blood pressure of systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic > 90 mm Hg which cannot be controlled by anti-hypertensive therapy - Known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncrasy to drugs chemically related to the study treatments, their excipients, and/or dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) - Medical or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements - Pregnant women are excluded from this study because of the potential for teratogenic or abortifacient effects; because there is an unknown but potential risk for adverse events in nursing infants secondary to treatment of the mother with dabrafenib, breastfeeding should be discontinued if the mother is treated with dabrafenib; these potential risks may also apply to other agents used in this study Inclusion Criteria: - Patients must have histologically confirmed malignancy that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective - Patients must have measurable and histologically or cytologically confirmed thyroid cancer with a BRAF V600E or V600K (c. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Will be defined as the highest dose at which not more than 1/6 of the patients experience dose limiting toxicity MTD is defined as the highest dose at which not more than 1/6 of the patients experience dose limiting toxicity.
Measure: Maximum tolerated dose (MTD) of lapatinib, in combination with the established dose of dabrafenib Time: First 42 days of treatmentDescription: Tissues such as phosphorylated mitogen-activated protein kinase 1 (ERK), human epidermal growth factor receptor (HER) 2, HER3, epidermal growth factor receptor (EGFR), platelet derived growth factor (PDGF), or protein kinase B (AKT) will be examined. Mean percent change will be calculated and compared.
Measure: Mean percent change in the post-treatment tissues relative to pre-treatment tissues for the phosphorylated protein targets examined Time: Baseline to day 7 of cycle 1Description: Genes including sodium/iodide symporter (NIS), dual-specificity phosphatase 5 (DUSP5), and plasminogen activator (PLAT) will be examined. Mean percentage change is calculated and compared with respect to each genotype.
Measure: Mean percentage change in transcript levels in the post-treatment tissues relative to pre-treatment tissues for several genes analyzed by reverse-transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction Time: Baseline to day 7 of cycle 1This randomized phase I trial studies the side effects and best way to give ipilimumab with or without dabrafenib, trametinib and/or nivolumab in treating patients with melanoma that has spread to other parts of the body (metastatic) or cannot be removed by surgery. Monoclonal antibodies, such as ipilimumab and nivolumab, may interfere with the ability of cancer cells to grow and spread. Dabrafenib and trametinib may stop the growth of tumor cells by blocking some of the enzymes needed for cell growth. It is not yet known whether ipilimumab works better with or without dabrafenib, trametinib, and/or nivolumab in treating melanoma.
For biomarkers measured categorically, pre/post response combinations will be compared between responders and non-responders using Fisher's exact test.. Inclusion Criteria: - Study participants must have histologically or cytologically confirmed unresectable or metastatic malignant melanoma - Study participants must have measurable disease, defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest diameter to be recorded for non-nodal lesions and short axis for nodal lesions) as >= 20 mm with conventional techniques or as >= 10 mm with spiral computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or calipers by clinical exam - Study participants must have completed any prior treatment at least 3 weeks prior to treatment on this protocol; prior treatments may have included chemotherapy however may not have included BRAF or MEK inhibitors or immunotherapies (interleukin-2, ipilimumab, anti-programmed death [PD]1 antibodies etc.) excluding vaccine therapy; prior treatment with interferon in the adjuvant setting is allowed, though prior treatment with ipilimumab in the adjuvant setting is not; prior radiation therapy is allowed though must have included no more than 3000 centigray (cGy) to fields including substantial marrow - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 2 (Karnofsky >= 60%) - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1.2 x 10^9/L - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL - Platelets >= 100 x 10^9/L - Albumin >= 2.5 g/dL - Serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) except subjects with known Gilbert's syndrome - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x institutional ULN - Serum creatinine =< 1.5 mg/dL OR calculated creatinine clearance (Cockcroft-Gault formula) >= 50 mL/min - Prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.3 x institutional ULN; subjects receiving anticoagulation treatment may be allowed to participate with INR established within the therapeutic range prior to randomization - Left ventricular ejection fraction >= institutional lower limit of normal (LLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) - Able to swallow and retain oral medication and must not have any clinically significant gastrointestinal abnormalities that may alter absorption such as malabsorption syndrome or major resection of the stomach or bowels - Patients must have BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutations, identified by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory (lab); if test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided - Therapeutic level dosing of warfarin can be used with close monitoring of PT/INR by the site; exposure may be decreased due to enzyme induction when on treatment, thus warfarin dosing may need to be adjusted based upon PT/INR; consequently, when discontinuing dabrafenib, warfarin exposure may be increased and thus close monitoring via PT/INR and warfarin dose adjustments must be made as clinically appropriate; prophylactic low dose warfarin may be given to maintain central catheter patency - Women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (barrier method of birth control, or abstinence; hormonal contraception is not allowed) for the duration of study participation, and for at least 2 weeks after treatment with dabrafenib or for 6 months after dabrafenib in combination with trametinib; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately - All prior treatment-related toxicities must be Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version (v)4 grade =< 1 (except alopecia) at the time of randomization - Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document Exclusion Criteria: - Prior systemic anti-cancer therapy (chemotherapy with delayed toxicity, extensive radiation therapy, immunotherapy, biologic therapy, or vaccine therapy) within the last 3 weeks; chemotherapy regimens without delayed toxicity within the last 2 weeks preceding the first dose of study treatment - Use of other investigational drugs within 28 days (or five half-lives, whichever is shorter; with a minimum of 14 days from the last dose) preceding the first dose of study treatment and during the study - Study participants with a history of prior treatment with BRAF or MEK inhibitors - Study participants who had prior treatment with anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, anti-PD-L2, anti-CTLA-4 antibody, or any other antibody or drug specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or immune checkpoint pathways - Patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids, should be excluded; these include but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded; patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones including physiologic corticosteroids are eligible; patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other arthropathies, Sjögren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies should be evaluated for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment but should otherwise be eligible - Patients are permitted to enroll if they have vitiligo, type I diabetes mellitus, residual hypothyroidism due to autoimmune condition only requiring hormone replacement, psoriasis not requiring systemic treatment, or conditions not expected to recur in the absence of an external trigger (precipitating event) - Study participants who have a condition requiring systemic treatment with either corticosteroids (> 10 mg daily prednisone equivalents) or other immunosuppressive medications within 14 days of study drug administration; inhaled or topical steroids and adrenal replacement doses < 10 mg daily prednisone equivalents are permitted in the absence of active autoimmune disease; patients are permitted to use topical, ocular, intra-articular, intranasal, and inhalational corticosteroids (with minimal systemic absorption); physiologic replacement doses of systemic corticosteroids are permitted, even if < 10 mg/day prednisone equivalents; a brief course of corticosteroids for prophylaxis (e.g., contrast dye allergy) or for treatment of non-autoimmune conditions (e.g., delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction caused by contact allergen) is permitted - Patients who have had evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction and abdominal carcinomatosis which are known risk factors for bowel perforation should be evaluated for the potential need for additional treatment before coming on study - Study participants with known immune impairment who may be unable to respond to anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA 4) antibody and/or anti-PD-1 antibody - Study participants with brain metastases are excluded unless these have been definitively treated and are radiographically stable for at least 1 month; the study participant must also demonstrate a stable physical exam and must have discontinued systemic steroids for treatment of edema related to brain metastases or treatment for over 7 days - Known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncrasy to drugs chemically related to the study treatments, their excipients, and/or dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) - Current use of a prohibited medication; patients receiving any medications or substances that are strong inhibitors or inducers of cytochrome P450, family 3, subfamily A (CYP3A) or cytochrome P450, family 2, subfamily C, polypeptide 8 (CYP2C8) are ineligible; current use of, or intended ongoing treatment with: herbal remedies (e.g., St. John's wort), or strong inhibitors or inducers of P-glycoprotein (Pgp) or breast cancer resistance protein 1 (Bcrp1) should also be excluded - Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible - A history of hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection (with the exception of cleared HBV and HCV infection, which will be allowed) - Patients with history of rat sarcoma (RAS) mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility - History or evidence of cardiovascular risks including any of the following: - QT interval corrected for heart rate using the Bazett's formula QTcB >= 480 msec - History of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction or unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within the past 24 weeks prior to randomization - History or evidence of current class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Intra-cardiac defibrillators - Abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by ECHO; (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study); subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on study - History or evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias; clarification: subjects with atrial fibrillation controlled for > 30 days prior to dosing are eligible - Treatment refractory hypertension defined as a blood pressure of systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic > 90 mm Hg which cannot be controlled by anti-hypertensive therapy - Any condition which in the investigator's opinion makes the subject unsuitable for study participation - History of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) - History of interstitial lung disease or pneumonitis Inclusion Criteria: - Study participants must have histologically or cytologically confirmed unresectable or metastatic malignant melanoma - Study participants must have measurable disease, defined as at least one lesion that can be accurately measured in at least one dimension (longest diameter to be recorded for non-nodal lesions and short axis for nodal lesions) as >= 20 mm with conventional techniques or as >= 10 mm with spiral computed tomography (CT) scan, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), or calipers by clinical exam - Study participants must have completed any prior treatment at least 3 weeks prior to treatment on this protocol; prior treatments may have included chemotherapy however may not have included BRAF or MEK inhibitors or immunotherapies (interleukin-2, ipilimumab, anti-programmed death [PD]1 antibodies etc.) excluding vaccine therapy; prior treatment with interferon in the adjuvant setting is allowed, though prior treatment with ipilimumab in the adjuvant setting is not; prior radiation therapy is allowed though must have included no more than 3000 centigray (cGy) to fields including substantial marrow - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status =< 2 (Karnofsky >= 60%) - Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) >= 1.2 x 10^9/L - Hemoglobin >= 9 g/dL - Platelets >= 100 x 10^9/L - Albumin >= 2.5 g/dL - Serum bilirubin =< 1.5 x institutional upper limit of normal (ULN) except subjects with known Gilbert's syndrome - Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and alanine aminotransferase (ALT) =< 2.5 x institutional ULN - Serum creatinine =< 1.5 mg/dL OR calculated creatinine clearance (Cockcroft-Gault formula) >= 50 mL/min - Prothrombin time (PT)/international normalized ratio (INR) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) =< 1.3 x institutional ULN; subjects receiving anticoagulation treatment may be allowed to participate with INR established within the therapeutic range prior to randomization - Left ventricular ejection fraction >= institutional lower limit of normal (LLN) by echocardiogram (ECHO) - Able to swallow and retain oral medication and must not have any clinically significant gastrointestinal abnormalities that may alter absorption such as malabsorption syndrome or major resection of the stomach or bowels - Patients must have BRAFV600E or BRAFV600K mutations, identified by a Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved test at a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-certified laboratory (lab); if test at CLIA-certified lab used a non-FDA approved method, information about the assay must be provided - Therapeutic level dosing of warfarin can be used with close monitoring of PT/INR by the site; exposure may be decreased due to enzyme induction when on treatment, thus warfarin dosing may need to be adjusted based upon PT/INR; consequently, when discontinuing dabrafenib, warfarin exposure may be increased and thus close monitoring via PT/INR and warfarin dose adjustments must be made as clinically appropriate; prophylactic low dose warfarin may be given to maintain central catheter patency - Women of child-bearing potential must agree to use adequate contraception (barrier method of birth control, or abstinence; hormonal contraception is not allowed) for the duration of study participation, and for at least 2 weeks after treatment with dabrafenib or for 6 months after dabrafenib in combination with trametinib; should a woman become pregnant or suspect she is pregnant while she is participating in this study, she should inform her treating physician immediately - All prior treatment-related toxicities must be Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (CTCAE) version (v)4 grade =< 1 (except alopecia) at the time of randomization - Ability to understand and the willingness to sign a written informed consent document Exclusion Criteria: - Prior systemic anti-cancer therapy (chemotherapy with delayed toxicity, extensive radiation therapy, immunotherapy, biologic therapy, or vaccine therapy) within the last 3 weeks; chemotherapy regimens without delayed toxicity within the last 2 weeks preceding the first dose of study treatment - Use of other investigational drugs within 28 days (or five half-lives, whichever is shorter; with a minimum of 14 days from the last dose) preceding the first dose of study treatment and during the study - Study participants with a history of prior treatment with BRAF or MEK inhibitors - Study participants who had prior treatment with anti-PD-1, anti-PD-L1, anti-PD-L2, anti-CTLA-4 antibody, or any other antibody or drug specifically targeting T-cell co-stimulation or immune checkpoint pathways - Patients with active autoimmune disease or history of autoimmune disease that might recur, which may affect vital organ function or require immune suppressive treatment including systemic corticosteroids, should be excluded; these include but are not limited to patients with a history of immune related neurologic disease, multiple sclerosis, autoimmune (demyelinating) neuropathy, Guillain-Barre syndrome, myasthenia gravis; systemic autoimmune disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), connective tissue diseases, scleroderma, inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), Crohn's, ulcerative colitis, hepatitis; and patients with a history of toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN), Stevens-Johnson syndrome, or phospholipid syndrome should be excluded; patients with vitiligo, endocrine deficiencies including thyroiditis managed with replacement hormones including physiologic corticosteroids are eligible; patients with rheumatoid arthritis and other arthropathies, Sjögren's syndrome and psoriasis controlled with topical medication and patients with positive serology, such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-thyroid antibodies should be evaluated for the presence of target organ involvement and potential need for systemic treatment but should otherwise be eligible - Patients are permitted to enroll if they have vitiligo, type I diabetes mellitus, residual hypothyroidism due to autoimmune condition only requiring hormone replacement, psoriasis not requiring systemic treatment, or conditions not expected to recur in the absence of an external trigger (precipitating event) - Study participants who have a condition requiring systemic treatment with either corticosteroids (> 10 mg daily prednisone equivalents) or other immunosuppressive medications within 14 days of study drug administration; inhaled or topical steroids and adrenal replacement doses < 10 mg daily prednisone equivalents are permitted in the absence of active autoimmune disease; patients are permitted to use topical, ocular, intra-articular, intranasal, and inhalational corticosteroids (with minimal systemic absorption); physiologic replacement doses of systemic corticosteroids are permitted, even if < 10 mg/day prednisone equivalents; a brief course of corticosteroids for prophylaxis (e.g., contrast dye allergy) or for treatment of non-autoimmune conditions (e.g., delayed-type hypersensitivity reaction caused by contact allergen) is permitted - Patients who have had evidence of active or acute diverticulitis, intra-abdominal abscess, gastrointestinal (GI) obstruction and abdominal carcinomatosis which are known risk factors for bowel perforation should be evaluated for the potential need for additional treatment before coming on study - Study participants with known immune impairment who may be unable to respond to anti-cytotoxic T-lymphocyte antigen 4 (CTLA 4) antibody and/or anti-PD-1 antibody - Study participants with brain metastases are excluded unless these have been definitively treated and are radiographically stable for at least 1 month; the study participant must also demonstrate a stable physical exam and must have discontinued systemic steroids for treatment of edema related to brain metastases or treatment for over 7 days - Known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncrasy to drugs chemically related to the study treatments, their excipients, and/or dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) - Current use of a prohibited medication; patients receiving any medications or substances that are strong inhibitors or inducers of cytochrome P450, family 3, subfamily A (CYP3A) or cytochrome P450, family 2, subfamily C, polypeptide 8 (CYP2C8) are ineligible; current use of, or intended ongoing treatment with: herbal remedies (e.g., St. John's wort), or strong inhibitors or inducers of P-glycoprotein (Pgp) or breast cancer resistance protein 1 (Bcrp1) should also be excluded - Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive patients on combination antiretroviral therapy are ineligible - A history of hepatitis B virus (HBV) or hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection (with the exception of cleared HBV and HCV infection, which will be allowed) - Patients with history of rat sarcoma (RAS) mutation-positive tumors are not eligible regardless of interval from the current study; Note: prospective RAS testing is not required; however, if the results of previous RAS testing are known, they must be used in assessing eligibility - History or evidence of cardiovascular risks including any of the following: - QT interval corrected for heart rate using the Bazett's formula QTcB >= 480 msec - History of acute coronary syndromes (including myocardial infarction or unstable angina), coronary angioplasty, or stenting within the past 24 weeks prior to randomization - History or evidence of current class II, III, or IV heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA) functional classification system - Intra-cardiac defibrillators - Abnormal cardiac valve morphology (>= grade 2) documented by ECHO; (subjects with grade 1 abnormalities [i.e., mild regurgitation/stenosis] can be entered on study); subjects with moderate valvular thickening should not be entered on study - History or evidence of current clinically significant uncontrolled cardiac arrhythmias; clarification: subjects with atrial fibrillation controlled for > 30 days prior to dosing are eligible - Treatment refractory hypertension defined as a blood pressure of systolic > 140 mmHg and/or diastolic > 90 mm Hg which cannot be controlled by anti-hypertensive therapy - Any condition which in the investigator's opinion makes the subject unsuitable for study participation - History of retinal vein occlusion (RVO) - History of interstitial lung disease or pneumonitis BRAF V600E Mutation Present BRAF V600K Mutation Present Metastatic Melanoma Stage III Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIA Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIB Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IIIC Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v7 Stage IV Cutaneous Melanoma AJCC v6 and v7 Melanoma Skin Neoplasms PRIMARY OBJECTIVES: I. To evaluate the safety and tolerability of ipilimumab (part 1) or ipilimumab plus nivolumab (part 2) following lead-in of v-raf murine sarcoma viral oncogene homolog B1 (BRAF) and mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK) inhibitors, either alone or in combination, in patients with BRAFV600 mutant melanoma. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Presented with 90% confidence intervals calculated using exact binomial methods.
Measure: Incidence of grade 3 or higher immune-related adverse events (irAEs), graded according to the National Cancer Institute (NCI) CTCAE v4.0 Time: Up to 3 weeks after end of ipilimumab inductionDescription: Presented with 90% confidence intervals calculated using exact binomial methods by randomized treatment arm.
Measure: Proportion of patients receiving dabrafenib and trametinib with grade 3 or higher irAEs after disease progression on ipilimumab, according to the NCI CTCAE v4.0 Time: Up to 4 weeks after completion of study treatmentDescription: Summarized by treatment arm and presented with 90% exact binomial confidence intervals. Fisher's exact test will be used.
Measure: Response rate for the total treatment period according to Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors v1.1 Time: Up to 4 weeks after completion of study treatmentDescription: Summarized by treatment arm and presented with 90% exact binomial confidence intervals. Fisher's exact test will be used.
Measure: Disease-control rate Time: Up to 4 weeks after completion of study treatmentDescription: The relationship between pre-treatment marker levels and response will be assessed according to expression cut-off between positive and negative. Fisher's exact test will be used to detect an increase in response rate and a secondary, sensitivity analysis will use a stratified Fisher's exact test.
Measure: Biomarker expression levels Time: BaselineDescription: Biomarkers measured on a continuous scale will be summarized and compared across response categories using the Wilcoxon rank-sum test. For biomarkers measured categorically, pre/post response combinations will be compared between responders and non-responders using Fisher's exact test.
Measure: Fold-changes in biomarkers Time: Baseline to 3 weeks after fourth ipilimumab doseDescription: Biomarkers measured on a continuous scale will be summarized and compared across response categories using the Wilcoxon rank-sum test. For biomarkers measured categorically, pre/post response combinations will be compared between responders and non-responders using Fisher's exact test.
Measure: Change in immune activation, measured by changes in biomarker levels Time: Baseline to 3 weeks after fourth ipilimumab doseThis is a screening study to detect BRAF V600 mutation-positive patients for enrollment into clinical research studies of Zelboraf (vemurafenib). Tumor samples will be collected and analyzed from eligible patients with solid tumors (other than metastatic melanoma or papillary thyroid cancer) or multiple myeloma. All institutions with identified patients as defined by this screening protocol will have potential access to the separate vemurafenib protocol MO28072.
V600E, V600K, V600D, and V600R are the different types of BRAF V600 mutations.. Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically confirmed solid tumors (excluding melanoma and papillary thyroid cancer) or multiple myeloma refractory to standard therapy or for which standard or curative therapy does not exist or is not considered appropriate by the investigator - Patients with multiple myeloma must have received at least one line of prior systemic therapy for the treatment of multiple myeloma Exclusion Criteria: - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status > 2 - Uncontrolled concurrent malignancy - Active or untreated CNS metastases - History of known carcinomatous meningitis - Prior treatment with a BRAF or MEK inhibitor (prior sorafenib is allowed) - Uncontrolled, severe medical illness or condition as defined in protocol MO28072 Inclusion Criteria: - Histologically confirmed solid tumors (excluding melanoma and papillary thyroid cancer) or multiple myeloma refractory to standard therapy or for which standard or curative therapy does not exist or is not considered appropriate by the investigator - Patients with multiple myeloma must have received at least one line of prior systemic therapy for the treatment of multiple myeloma Exclusion Criteria: - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status > 2 - Uncontrolled concurrent malignancy - Active or untreated CNS metastases - History of known carcinomatous meningitis - Prior treatment with a BRAF or MEK inhibitor (prior sorafenib is allowed) - Uncontrolled, severe medical illness or condition as defined in protocol MO28072 Multiple Myeloma, Neoplasms Multiple Myeloma null --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded (FFPEs) tumor samples (at least 5 serially-cut, unstained, 5 micrometer [μm] sections) were collected from eligible participants who consented to participate in the study. FFPE tumor samples were either from archived sections (from the initial diagnosis of cancer) or from fresh biopsies that were performed according to local standards. Tumor samples were then sent to a central laboratory to identify activating BRAF V600 mutations. Identification of mutations was done using bidirectional direct Sanger sequencing procedure.
Measure: Percentage of Participants With BRAF V600 Mutation Positivity in Tumor Samples by Cancer Type Time: Up to 1 yearDescription: FFPEs tumor samples (at least 5 serially-cut, unstained, 5 μm sections) were collected from eligible participants who consented to participate in the study. FFPE tumor samples were either from archived sections (from the initial diagnosis of cancer) or from fresh biopsies that were performed according to local standards. Tumor samples were then sent to a central laboratory to identify activating BRAF V600 mutations. Identification of mutations was done using bidirectional direct Sanger sequencing procedure. V600E, V600K, V600D, and V600R are the different types of BRAF V600 mutations.
Measure: Number of Participants Classified Based on Different Types of BRAF V600 Mutation Patterns in Tumor Samples Time: Up to 1 yearThis phase II study in 20 patients with BRAFV600E mutant, unresectable stage III/IV melanoma is designed to explore the mechanisms by which tumors acquire resistance to the combination of a BRAF inhibitor (dabrafenib) and MEK inhibitor (trametinib). Tissue will be collected at baseline and at progression.If a subject is removed from the study for one of a variety of reasons including, but not limited to, an inability to tolerate the combination of dabrafenib and trametinib, a need to receive other therapy or completion of 3-years of study treatment without progression, and the subject later receives, as part of his/her standard of care, the combination of dabrafenib and trametinib and progresses on the standard of care regimen, then the subject may be contacted by the treating physician to be put back on to the LCCC 1128 protocol and have a progression biopsy at this progression time point. Markers of resistance will be explored by performing near kinome-wide profiling on tumor samples, and in patients who co-enroll in institutional protocol LCCC1108, by sequencing tumors using NextGen DNA sequencing technology. Overall response rate and duration to this combination will also be assessed.
Main Study Inclusion Criteria: Subject must meet all of the inclusion criteria to participate in this study: Age ≥18 years Signed written informed consent Histologically confirmed V600E or V600K BRAF mutant melanoma Unresectable Stage III/IV melanoma ECOG PS 0-2 Normal organ function as defined by the following: - Absolute neutrophil count >1.2 × 109/L - Hemoglobin >9 g/dL, platelets >75 × 109/L - PT/INR and PTT ≤1.5 x ULN (Note: subjects receiving anticoagulation treatment may enroll with INR established within the therapeutic range prior to D1 of treatment) - Albumin >2.5 g/dL - Total bilirubin <1.5 x ULN (patients with elevated bilirubin due to Gilbert's disease will not be excluded) - AST and ALT < 2.5× ULN - CrCl ≥50mL/min per Cockcroft-Gault Prior anti-cancer treatment related toxicities except alopecia and lab values as outlined in the criterion above must be less than or equal to Grade 1 as per CTCAEv4 Willing to undergo biopsy for research purposes only Females of child-bearing potential: willing to use two forms of effective contraception, and to continue use for 16 weeks post last dose of study medication. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: The primary outcome of this study is to identify kinases that are differentially expressed pre- and post-treatment with BRAF (dabrafenib) and MEK (trametinib) inhibitors. The kinases will be profiled using Multiplexed Inhibitor Beads (MIBs) coupled with mass spectrometry (MS) and reported as a sum of the Log 2 Fold Change between baseline and one year post treatment across all patients
Measure: Change in Kinase Expression Time: Baseline and One year post treatmentDescription: Prediction analysis of microarrays (PAM) based on nearest shrunken centroid will also be carried out to identify a subset of kinases that predicts resistance to BRAF+MEK inhibition.
Measure: Kinome Signature Predictive of Resistance Time: One year post treatmentDescription: The secondary outcome measure is to explore whether resistance to BRAF and MEK inhibition is associated with new functional mutations in the approximately 150 oncogenes / tumor suppressor genes that are assessed in more than 10% of the tumors (using Next Generation (NextGen) DNA sequencing technology) in the subset of patients who co-enroll in a correlative study, with particular focus on one of five established resistance genes (BRAF, NRAS, MEK1, Mitogen-Activated Protein Kinase Kinase Kinase 8 (MAP3K8) or Cancer Osaka Thyroid (COT), and PTEN).
Measure: BRAF and MEK Inhibition Associated With New Functional Mutations in the Approximately 150 Oncogenes Time: One yearDescription: To determine the disease overall response rate (ORR: complete response (CR) + partial response (PR)/total number of patients) as measured radiographically via Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors Criteria (RECIST v1.1) for target lesions. CR is defined as the disappearance of all target lesions; PR is a >=30% decrease in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions
Measure: Overall Response Rate (ORR) Time: One year post treatmentDescription: Duration of overall response is defined as the time from documentation of response (Complete or Partial) to time of disease progression or death. Response was measured radiographically using Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors Criteria (RECIST v1.1) for target lesions. Complete Response is defined as the disappearance of all target lesions; Partial Response as a >=30% decrease in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions, and Progressive Disease as a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions or the appearance of new lesions.
Measure: Duration of Overall Response Time: One year post treatmentDescription: PFS is defined as the time from Day 1 of protocol treatment to the date of progression as measured radiographically using Response Evaluation Criteria In Solid Tumors Criteria (RECIST v1.1) or to the date of death. Per RECIST, Progressive Disease as a 20% increase in the sum of the longest diameter of target lesions or the appearance of new lesions.
Measure: Progression Free Survival (PFS) Time: One year post treatmentDescription: The rate of overall survival is defined as the percentage of patients still alive at one year from Day 1 of protocol treatment
Measure: Rate of Overall Survival (OS) at 12 Months Time: One year post treatmentThis is a 2-part, study to determine the safety, tolerability and pharmacokinetics of oral dabrafenib in children and adolescent subjects with advanced BRAF V600 mutation-positive solid tumors. Part 1 (dose escalation study) will identify the recommended Part 2 (tumor-specific expansion study) dose and regimen using a dose-escalation procedure. Approximately 6 to 18 subjects will participate in Part 1 and will receive a starting dose of 3 mg/kg and dose will deescalate or escalate between 1.5 milligram (mg)/kilogram (kg) and 6 mg/kg. Up to 6 subjects will be enrolled at one dose level dependent upon the number of subjects at the current dose level, the number of subjects who have experienced a dose limiting toxicity (DLT) at the current dose level, and the number of subjects enrolled but with data pending at the current dose level. Escalation may proceed until either a maximum tolerated dose (MTD) is established, or until the dose in which the median pharmacokinetic parameters consistent with exposure in adults are achieved. Cohorts may be added in order to evaluate additional dose levels. Part 2 consists of four disease-specific cohorts of subjects with tumors known to have BRAF V600 activation (pediatric low-grade gliomas, pediatric high-grade gliomas, Langerhans cell histiocytosis [LCH], and other tumors such as melanoma and papillary thyroid carcinoma [PTC]). Each cohort will enroll at least 10 subjects with a pre-dose and at least 1 post-dose disease assessment. In both the parts of the study, on Day 1, a single first dose will be administered, and repeat dosing will begin on Day 2. PK sampling will be performed on Day 1 and Day 15 for subjects >=25 kg in weight. For subjects <25 kg and >=10 kg in weight, blood samples for PK analysis will be collected on Day 1 and Day 15. For subjects <10kg in weight, blood samples for PK analysis will be collected after repeated administration on Day 15 only. Safety and tolerability will be assessed throughout the study. Treatment with dabrafenib will be continued until disease progression or until no clinical benefit or development of an unacceptable toxicity, or until they withdraw consent or begin a new therapy. At the end of treatment, a final study visit will occur.
- BRAF V600 mutation-positive tumor as confirmed in a Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA)-approved laboratory or equivalent (the local BRAF testing may be subject to subsequent verification by centralized testing; centralized testing can confirm V600E and V600K mutations only). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Safety and tolerability parameters will include recording of AEs, in Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Safety and tolerability of dabrafenib dose that achieves similar exposures to the dabrafenib adult dose as assessed by number of subjects with adverse events (AEs) Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include the electrocardiogram (ECG) readings at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Safety and tolerability of dabrafenib dose that achieves similar exposures to the dabrafenib adult dose as assessed by change from Baseline in ECG readings Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include recording of echocardiogram (ECHO) at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Safety and tolerability of dabrafenib dose that achieves similar exposures to the dabrafenib adult dose as assessed by change from Baseline in ECHO findings Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include laboratory values at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Safety and tolerability of dabrafenib dose that achieves similar exposures to the dabrafenib adult dose as assessed by change from Baseline in laboratory values Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include vital signs at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Safety and tolerability of dabrafenib dose that achieves similar exposures to the dabrafenib adult dose as assessed by change from Baseline in vital signs Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: To calculate the dabrafenib dose(s) for chronic dosing in pediatric subjects (infants, children, and adolescents), the Cmax of dabrafenib that achieves similar exposure to the dabrafenib adult dose will be evaluated.
Measure: Maximum concentration (Cmax) of dabrafenib dose(s) Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: To calculate the dabrafenib dose(s) for chronic dosing in pediatric subjects (infants, children, and adolescents) the AUC(0-τ) and AUC(0-inf) of dabrafenib that achieves similar exposure to the dabrafenib adult dose will be evaluated.
Measure: Area under the concentration-time curve over the dosing interval (AUC(0-τ)) and AUC from zero to infinity (AUC(0-inf)) of dabrafenib dose(s) Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: Pharmacokinetic data will include C trough of dabrafenib and its metabolites (hydroxy-dabrafenib [GSK2285403], carboxy-dabrafenib [GSK2298683], and desmethyl-dabrafenib [GSK2167542]).
Measure: Pre-dose (trough) concentration (C tau) of dabrafenib and its metabolites Time: Day 1-Predose, Day 15-PredoseDescription: Pharmacokinetic data will include area under the time-concentration curve from time zero (pre-dose) to last time of quantifiable concentration (AUC[0-t]), AUC(0-tau) of dabrafenib and its metabolites (hydroxy-dabrafenib [GSK2285403], carboxy-dabrafenib [GSK2298683], and desmethyl-dabrafenib [GSK2167542]).
Measure: The AUC(0-t) and AUC(0-tau) of dabrafenib and its metabolites Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: Pharmacokinetic data will include CL/F of dabrafenib.
Measure: Apparent clearance following oral dosing (CL/F) of dabrafenib Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: Pharmacokinetic data will include Cmax of dabrafenib and its metabolites (hydroxy-dabrafenib [GSK2285403], carboxy-dabrafenib [GSK2298683], and desmethyl-dabrafenib [GSK2167542]).
Measure: Cmax of dabrafenib, and its metabolites Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: Pharmacokinetic data will include tmax of dabrafenib and its metabolites (hydroxy-dabrafenib [GSK2285403], carboxy-dabrafenib [GSK2298683], and desmethyl-dabrafenib [GSK2167542]).
Measure: Time from administration to Cmax (tmax) of dabrafenib and its metabolites Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: Pharmacokinetic data will include t½ of dabrafenib and its metabolites (hydroxy-dabrafenib [GSK2285403], carboxy-dabrafenib [GSK2298683], and desmethyl-dabrafenib [GSK2167542]).
Measure: Elimination half life (t½) of dabrafenib and its metabolites Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: Safety and tolerability parameters will include recording of AEs, in Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Longer term safety and tolerability of dabrafenib as assessed by number of subjects with AEs Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include the electrocardiogram (ECG) readings at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study
Measure: Longer term safety and tolerability of dabrafenib as assessed by change from Baseline in ECG readings Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include laboratory values at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Longer term safety and tolerability of dabrafenib as assessed by change from Baseline in laboratory values Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability parameters will include vital signs at Baseline and at end of Part 1 and Part 2 of the study.
Measure: Longer term safety and tolerability of dabrafenib as assessed by change from Baseline in vital signs Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: Anti-tumor activity will be assessed based on clinical evidence and the response evaluation criteria in solid tumors (RECIST) version 1.1 criteria for solid tumors, response assessment in neuro-oncology (RANO) criteria (glioma subjects) and langerhans cell histiocytosis (LCH) scoring system.
Measure: Overall tumor response of dabrafenib Time: Up to 6 monthsDescription: The CL/F data with the effect of age and weight using a population pharmacokinetic approach will be evaluated.
Measure: Effect of age and weight on CL/F of dabrafenib Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: The V/F data with the effect of age and weight using a population pharmacokinetic approach will be evaluated.
Measure: Effect of age and weight on volume of distribution (V/F) of dabrafenib Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: The ka data with the effect of age and weight using a population pharmacokinetic approach will be evaluated.
Measure: Effect of age and weight on absorption rate (ka) of dabrafenib Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.Description: The coefficients for significant covariates data with the effect of age and weight using a population pharmacokinetic approach will be evaluated.
Measure: Effect of age and weight on coefficients for significant covariates of dabrafenib Time: Day 1-Predose, 0.5, 2 and 4 hours post dose; Day 15-Predose, 0, 0.5, 1, 2, 3, 4, 6 and 8 hours post dose.This is a surgical biospecimen collection study. The purpose of this study is to understand how much of two drugs (dabrafenib and trametinib) are able to penetrate brain tumors and turn off the RAF signaling pathway. This is important because these drugs are currently FDA approved for other tumors and may have efficacy in brain tumors with the BRAF V600E mutation.
Allowable mutations include V600E, V600K, V600R, and V600D. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Obtain single time-point concentration of dabrafenib in enhancing brain tissue (ng/mL) using liquid chromatography/mass spectrometry with one single, random sample
Measure: Concentration of dabrafenib in brain tumor Time: Day 1Description: Obtain single time-point concentration of trametinib in enhancing brain tissue (ng/mL) using liquid chromatography/mass spectrometry with one single, random sample
Measure: Concentration of trametinib in brain tumor Time: Day 1The mean survival time in the advanced tumor stage in the presence of distant metastases in malignant melanoma was less than 9 months until a few years ago. Intensive research efforts have led to the development of promising new therapeutic strategies and their clinical application. These include on the one hand mutation-specific inhibitors of important for cell division serine-threonine kinase BRAF such as vemurafenib, dabrafenib and encorafenib and inhibitors of the downstream target protein, the mitogen-activated protein kinase kinase (MEK), such as trametinib, binimetinib and cobimetinib. The group of immunotherapeutics is a second new class of drugs, in which great hope for the treatment of metastatic melanoma is placed. Antibody-mediated blockage of surface molecules expressed on immune cells, referred to as immune checkpoints, results in activation of the immune system. As a result, an anti-tumor immune response is triggered, which has led to considerable therapeutic success in metastatic melanoma. To date, three checkpoint inhibitors have been approved for the treatment of metastatic melanoma. Ipilimumab is an antibody that binds cytotoxic T-lymphocyte-associated antigen 4 (CTLA-4); Pembrolizumab and nivolumab cause immune stimulation by binding the Programmed Death Receptor (PD1). However, the impact of the therapy on the immune system as a whole is largely unknown. A comprehensive understanding of these effects is crucial to be able to further develop the therapy and to evaluate useful combination therapies with other immunomodulatory agents. Within the framework of this project changes of the immune response under a systemic therapy of the malignant melanoma are to be characterized. The material for the analysis comes from blood samples collected during routine patient check-ups. The aim of the analyzes is to precisely characterize the effects of the different therapeutics on the function of the immune system. In particular, the study will investigate whether certain therapeutic agents can weaken or activate the immune system and thus, in addition to the direct effect on the tumor cells, mediate indirect therapeutic effects via immune modulation. In the long term, the investigators want to use the knowledge gained to further improve the already existing therapeutic strategies of malignant melanoma by additional modulation of the immune system.
The two most common BRAF mutations (V600E and V600K) constitutively activate the MAP kinase signaling pathway that drives the proliferation and survival of cancer cells. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: As part of the course of therapy during routine check-up, blood samples are collected and then analyzed by flow cytometry (ONE study panel). Frequency of surface antigens of PBMC are analyzed and the characterized sub-populations are monitored during the follow-up. Thereby, changes in frequency of surface antigens will be assessed compared to baseline (before start of treatment). This allows to determine the individual immunophenotype of a patient.
Measure: Change in frequency of peripheral immune cell populations assessed by immune monitoring through flow cytometry (ONE study FACS panel) Time: Before start of treatment, 3 and 6 weeks after start of treatment as well as through study completion, an average of 1 yearDescription: As part of the course of therapy during routine check-up, blood samples are collected and then analyzed by flow cytometry (ONE study panel). Expression level of surface antigens of PBMC are analyzed and the characterized sub-populations are monitored during the follow-up. Thereby, changes in expression level of surface antigens will be assessed compared to baseline (before start of treatment). This allows to determine the individual immunophenotype of a patient.
Measure: Change in activation status of peripheral immune cell populations assessed by immune monitoring through flow cytometry (ONE study FACS panel) Time: Before start of treatment, 3 and 6 weeks after start of treatment as well as through study completion, an average of 1 yearDescription: Screening for liver inflammation (serum ALT U/l)
Measure: Liver inflammation (ALT) Time: Before start of treatment, 3 and 6 weeks after start of treatment as well as through study completion, an average of 1 yearDescription: Screening for liver inflammation (serum AST U/l)
Measure: Liver inflammation (AST) Time: Before start of treatment, 3 and 6 weeks after start of treatment as well as through study completion, an average of 1 yearThis phase I clinical trial studies the side effects of selinexor in treating patients with melanoma that cannot be removed by surgery. Drugs used in chemotherapy, such as selinexor, may stop the growth of tumor cells, by stopping them from dividing.
interleukin 2) and a BRAF and/or MEK inhibitor (if tumor contains the V600E or V600K mutation) for 628 metastatic disease. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Types of toxicities, incidences and severity will be summarized by descriptive statistics such as frequencies/proportions.
Measure: Incidence of adverse events graded using the National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events version 4.03 Time: 28 daysDescription: Kaplan-Meier method will be used to assess the PFS.
Measure: PFS Time: From date of registration to date of first documentation of progression or symptomatic deterioration or death due to any cause or last contact, assessed up to 1 yearDescription: Markers with continuous numerical data will be analyzed using linear mixed effects models (LMEMs). Binary markers (presence vs. absence) will be summarized by proportions and the confidence intervals will be calculated. Marker changes by mutation groups in plots will be presented. To correlate the marker changes with response, mainly summary statistics and plots will be used given the potentially small subgroups.
Measure: Change in tumor markers by immunohistochemistry Time: Baseline to up to 1 yearThis is a two-arm, double-blinded, randomized, Phase III study comparing dabrafenib (GSK2118436) and trametinib (GSK1120212) combination therapy to dabrafenib administered with a trametinib placebo (dabrafenib monotherapy). Subjects with histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIC (unresectable) or Stage IV, and BRAF V600E/K mutation positive will be screened for eligibility. Subjects who have had prior systemic anti-cancer treatment in the advanced or metastatic setting will not be eligible although prior systemic treatment in the adjuvant setting will be allowed. Approximately 340 subjects will be randomized 1:1 (combination therapy: dabrafenib monotherapy). Subjects will be stratified by lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level (> the upper limit of normal (ULN) versus less than or equal to the ULN) and BRAF mutation (V600E versus V600K). The primary endpoint is investigator-assessed, progression-free survival for subjects receiving the combination therapy compared with those receiving dabrafenib monotherapy. Subjects will be followed for overall survival; crossover will not be permitted.
Subjects will be stratified by lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) level (> the upper limit of normal (ULN) versus less than or equal to the ULN) and BRAF mutation (V600E versus V600K). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Progression-free survival (PFS) is defined as the time (in months) from the date of randomization to the first documented occurrence of PD or death. Investigator PFS was summarized per response evaluation criteria in solid tumors (RECIST, version 1.1) which is a set of published criteria defining when cancer patients improve (respond), stay the same (stable) or worsen (progress). PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. For participants who had not progressed or died at the time of the analysis, censoring was performed at the last adequate disease assessment.
Measure: Progression-Free Survival (PFS) as Assessed by the Investigator Time: From randomization until the earliest date of disease progression (PD) or death due to any cause (average of 9 study months)Description: OS is defined as the interval of time (in months) between the date of randomization and the date of death due to any cause. For participants who did not die, time of death was censored at the date of last contact.
Measure: Overall Survival (OS) Time: From randomization until death due to any cause (average of 9 study months)Description: A participant was defined as a responder if he/she sustained a complete response (CR: the disappearance of all target lesions and any pathological lymph nodes must have a short axis of <10 mm and the disappearance of all non-target lesions) or partial response (PR: at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters or the persistence of 1 or more non-target lesions or lymph nodes identified as a site of disease at Baseline with a short axis of ≥10mm).
Measure: Number of Participants With a Confirmed Response (Complete Response or Partial Response) Time: From randomization until the first documented complete response or partial response (average of 9 study months)Description: Duration of response is defined as the time (in months) from the first documented complete response (CR: the disappearance of all target lesions and any pathological lymph nodes must have a short axis of <10 mm and the disappearance of all non-target lesions) or partial response (PR: at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters or the persistence of 1 or more non-target lesions or lymph nodes identified as a site of disease at Baseline with a short axis of ≥10mm) until disease progression (PD). PD is defined as at least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions with an absolute increase of at least 5mm or the appearance of one or more new lesions, or the worsening of non target lesions significant enough to require study treatment discontinuation. PD was based on the radiological evidence by investigator.
Measure: Duration of Response for Participants With a Confirmed Response (Complete Response or Partial Response) Time: From the time of the first documented response (CR or PR) until disease progression (average of 9 study months)Description: An AE is defined as any untoward medical occurrence in a par., temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product, whether or not considered related to the medicinal product. An SAE is defined as any untoward medical occurrence that, at any dose, results in death, is life-threatening, requires hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, results in disability/incapacity, or is a congenital anomaly/birth defect. Protocol specific SAEs included: ALT≥3XULN and total bilirubin ≥2XULN (35% direct) or ALT ≥3XULN and INR >1.5 (if INR is measured); any new malignancy with a histology different from the primary tumor; left ventricular ejection fraction that met stopping criteria; central serous retinopathy or retinal vein occlusion; pyrexia accompanied by ≥grade 3 hypotension, or hypotension that is clinically significant as judged by the investigator, dehydration requiring IV fluids, or severe rigor/chills. Refer to the general AE/SAE module for a list of AEs and SAEs.
Measure: Number of Participants With Any Adverse Event (AE) or Serious Adverse Event (SAE) Time: From the time the first dose of study treatment administered until 30 days after discontinuation of study treatment (average of 9 study months)Description: Clinical chemistry data were summarized according to National Cancer Institute Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events (NCI-CTCAE) grade, version 4.0. Grade 1, Mild; Grade 2, Moderate; Grade 3, Severe or disabling; Grade 4, Life-threatening; Grade 5, Death related to AE. Data are presented for only those parameters for which an increase to Grade 3 or Grade 4 occurred. Clinical chemistry tests where the toxicity grade is defined by NCI-CTCAE includes albumin, alkaline phosphatase, alanine aminotransferase (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), bilirubin, calcium, glucose, potassium, sodium, creatinine and phosphate. Participants with missing Baseline grades were assumed to have a Baseline grade of 0. Only those participants with laboratory values for worst-case on-therapy are presented. Worst-case on-therapy included both scheduled and unscheduled visits.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Grade Change From Baseline to Grade 3 and 4 for the Indicated Clinical Chemistry Parameters Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: Hematology data were summarized according to NCI-CTCAE grade, version 4.0. Grade 1, Mild; Grade 2, Moderate; Grade 3, Severe, or disabling; Grade 4, Life-threatening; Grade 5, Death related to AE. Data are presented for only those parameters for which an increase to Grade 3 or Grade 4 occurred. Hematology tests where the toxicity grade is defined by NCI-CTCAE includes hemoglobin, lymphocytes, neutrophils, platelets and leukocytes. Participants with missing Baseline grades were assumed to have a Baseline grade of 0. Only those participants with laboratory values for worst-case on-therapy are presented. Worst-case on-therapy included both scheduled and unscheduled visits.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Grade Change From Baseline to Grade 3 and 4 for the Indicated Hematology Parameters Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: Hematology tests where the toxicity grade is not defined by NCI-CTCAE includes basophils, eosinophils and monocytes. Change from Baseline is categorized as a decrease to low, change to normal or no change, increase to high in reference to the normal range. Only those participants with laboratory values for worst-case on-therapy are presented. For the worst-case on-therapy, participants were counted twice if the participant lab value decreased to low and increased to high during the on-therapy period.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Change From Baseline With Respect to the Normal Range for the Indicated Hematology Parameters Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: Clinical chemistry tests where the toxicity grade is not defined by NCI-CTCAE includes chloride, creatinine clearence, lactate dehydrogenase, urea, protein and carbon dioxide. Change from Baseline is categorized as decrease to low, change to normal or no change, increase to high in reference to the normal range. Only those participants with laboratory values for worst-case on-therapy are presented. For the worst-case on-therapy, participants were counted twice if the participant lab value decreased to low and increased to high during the on-therapy period.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Change From Baseline With Respect to the Normal Range for the Indicated Clinical Chemistry Parameters Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: Change from Baseline in heart rate is categorized as decrease to <60 beats per minute (bpm), change to normal or no change, and increase to >100 bpm. Participants with a missing Baseline value are assumed to have a normal Baseline value. Participants were counted twice if the participant heart rate value decreased to <60 bpm and increased to >100 bpm post-Baseline. Only those participants with heart rate values for worst-case on-therapy are presented.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Change From Baseline in Heart Rate Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: Change from Baseline in systolic blood pressure (SBP) is categorized as: Grade 0 (<120 millimeters of mercury [mmHg]), Grade 1 (120-139 mmHg), Grade 2 (140-159 mmHg), and Grade 3 (>=160 mmHg). Change from Baseline in diastolic blood pressure (DBP) is categorized as: Grade 0 (<80 mmHg), Grade 1 (80-89 mmHg), Grade 2 (90-99 mmHg), and Grade 3 (>=100 mmHg). An increase is defined as an increase in the CTCAE grade relative to the Baseline grade. Participants with missing Baseline values were assumed to have a Baseline value of grade 0. Only those participants with blood pressure values for worst-case on-therapy are presented.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Change From Baseline in Systolic and Diastolic Blood Pressure to Grade 2 or Grade 3 Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: Change from Baseline in temperature is categorized as a decrease to <=35 degrees celsius (C), change to normal or no change as 35-38 degrees C, and increase to >=38 degrees C. Participants with a missing Baseline value are assumed to have a normal Baseline value. Participants were counted twice if the participant temperature value decreased to <=35 degrees C and increased to >=38 degrees C post-Baseline. Only those participants with temperature values for worst-case on-therapy are presented.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worst-case On-therapy Change From Baseline in Temperature Time: From Baseline up to Week 64Description: The QT interval is a measure of the time between the start of the Q wave and the end of the T wave in the heart's electrical cycle. Bazett's QTc is categorized as: Grade 0 (<450 milliseconds [msec]), Grade 1 (450-480 msec), Grade 2 (481-500 msec), and Grade 3 (>=501 msec). An increase is defined as an increase in the CTCAE grade relative to the Baseline grade. Participants with missing Baseline values were assumed to have a Baseline value of grade 0. Only those participants with Bazett's QTc values for worst-case on-therapy are presented.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Worse-case On-therapy Change From Baseline in the Bazett's QTc to Grade 2 or Grade 3 Time: From Baseline up to Week 60Description: Absolute change from Baseline in LVEF were summarized at each scheduled assessment time and in the worst-case post Baseline. Only the post Baseline assessments that used the same method (ECHO or Multi Gated Acquisition Scan [MUGA]) as the Baseline assessments were used to derive the change from Baseline. The change from Baseline was categorized as any increase; no change; and any decrease and as 0-10 decrease, 10 - 19 decrease, >= 20 decrease, >=10 decrease and >= lower limit of normal (LLN), >=10 decrease and
Description: Participants were evaluated for the event of squamous cell carcinoma including Keratoacanthoma.
Measure: Number of Participants With Incidence of Squamous Cell Carcinoma Time: From Baseline up to end of study (average of 9 study months)Description: Blood samples were collected for Pharmacokinetic (PK) analysis in all participants. Three blood samples were collected at Week 8: pre-dose, 1-3 hours post dose, and 4-6 hours post dose. One pre-dose blood sample was obtained at Weeks 16 and 24.
Measure: Plasma Concentrations of Trametinib Time: Week 8: pre-dose, 1-3 hours and 4-6 hours post dose; Week 16 pre-dose and Week 24 pre-doseDescription: Blood samples were collected for PK analysis in all participants. Three blood samples were collected at Week 8: pre-dose, 1-3 hours post dose, and 4-6 hours post dose. One pre-dose blood sample was obtained at Weeks 16 and 24. Plasma concentrations of dabrafenib (GSK2118436) and its metabolites (GSK2285403, GSK2298683, and GSK2167542) were determined using the currently approved analytical methodology.
Measure: Plasma Concentrations of Dabrafenib and Its Metabolites Time: Week 8: pre-dose, 1-3 hours and 4-6 hours post dose; Week 16 pre-dose and Week 24 pre-dosePhase II clinical trial, with two cohorts of patients included in parallel, all with melanoma BRAF mutated and brain metastases without previous local treatment in the brain. Cohort 1 will include patients with asymptomatic brain metastases and cohort 2 will include patients with symptomatic brain metastasis.
- Histologically confirmed diagnosis of unresectable metastatic cutaneous melanoma, or unknown primary melanoma with one or more brain metastasis with a diameter of 10 to 50 mm, measured by contrast enhanced MRI. - Presence of a BRAF V600E or V600K mutation, or both, in their tumour tissue. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: iORR calculated as the proportion of patient with a best overall intracranial response of complete response (CR) or partial response (PR) before local treatment in cohort 1. The final statistical analysis of this endpoint is expected to be performed within 3 months after the local treatment of the last patient in cohort 1. This outcome will be assessed on day 56, and every 8 weeks up to 24 months after start of treatment
Measure: Intracranial objective response by RECIST 1.1 before local radiotherapy treatment in cohort 1 Time: 24 months after start of treatmentDescription: ORR calculated as the proportion of patient with a best overall intracranial response of complete response (CR) or partial response (PR) before local treatment in cohort 1. The final statistical analysis of this endpoint is expected to be performed within 3 months after the local treatment of the last patient in cohort 2. This outcome will be assessed on day 56, and every 8 weeks up to 24 months after start of treatment
Measure: Intracranial objective response by RECIST 1.1 before local radiotherapy treatment in cohort 2 Time: 24 months after start of treatmentDescription: Compared to baseline evaluation evaluated after 8 weeks since the start of treatment
Measure: Change on Quality of life at week 8 in both cohorts based on the EORTC QLQ 30 scale Time: 8 weeksDescription: Compared to baseline evaluation evaluated after 24 weeks since the start of treatment
Measure: Change on Quality of life at week 24 in both cohorts based on the EORTC QLQ 30 scale Time: 24 weeksThe purpose of this study is to determine the maximum tolerated dose and characterize the safety profile of durvalumab (MEDI4736) in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib or with trametinib alone in participants with metastatic or unresectable melanoma with BRAF-mutation positive or wild-type (WT) BRAF, respectively.
The number of participants with positive serum antibodies to durvalumab post dosing are reported.. Inclusion Criteria: - Adults >= 18 years old - Histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIc (unresectable) or Stage IV (metastatic) and determined to be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive (cohort A) or mutation-negative (cohorts B and C) - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 - Measurable disease by radiographic or physical examination - Adequate organ and marrow function - Willingness to provide consent for biopsies positive or BRAF WT measurable disease and adequate organ and marrow function Exclusion Criteria: - Prior treatment with a BRAF inhibitor or MEK inhibitor - Any prior Grade >= 3 immune-related adverse event while receiving immunotherapy - Active or prior documented autoimmune disease within the past 2 years - History of or current risk for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) - History of or current cardiovascular risk including myocardial infarction, >= Class II congestive heart failure, uncontrolled arrhythmias, or refractory hypertension - Active, untreated central nervous system (CNS) metastases - Women who are pregnant or lactating Inclusion Criteria: - Adults >= 18 years old - Histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIc (unresectable) or Stage IV (metastatic) and determined to be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive (cohort A) or mutation-negative (cohorts B and C) - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 - Measurable disease by radiographic or physical examination - Adequate organ and marrow function - Willingness to provide consent for biopsies positive or BRAF WT measurable disease and adequate organ and marrow function Exclusion Criteria: - Prior treatment with a BRAF inhibitor or MEK inhibitor - Any prior Grade >= 3 immune-related adverse event while receiving immunotherapy - Active or prior documented autoimmune disease within the past 2 years - History of or current risk for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) - History of or current cardiovascular risk including myocardial infarction, >= Class II congestive heart failure, uncontrolled arrhythmias, or refractory hypertension - Active, untreated central nervous system (CNS) metastases - Women who are pregnant or lactating Melanoma Melanoma This is a multicenter, open-label study with a dose escalation phase followed by an expansion phase of durvalumab administered in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib or with trametinib alone in participants with BRAF V600 mutation-positive and WT unresectable or metastatic melanoma, respectively. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
The number of participants with positive serum antibodies to durvalumab post dosing are reported.. Inclusion Criteria: - Adults >= 18 years old - Histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIc (unresectable) or Stage IV (metastatic) and determined to be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive (cohort A) or mutation-negative (cohorts B and C) - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 - Measurable disease by radiographic or physical examination - Adequate organ and marrow function - Willingness to provide consent for biopsies positive or BRAF WT measurable disease and adequate organ and marrow function Exclusion Criteria: - Prior treatment with a BRAF inhibitor or MEK inhibitor - Any prior Grade >= 3 immune-related adverse event while receiving immunotherapy - Active or prior documented autoimmune disease within the past 2 years - History of or current risk for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) - History of or current cardiovascular risk including myocardial infarction, >= Class II congestive heart failure, uncontrolled arrhythmias, or refractory hypertension - Active, untreated central nervous system (CNS) metastases - Women who are pregnant or lactating Inclusion Criteria: - Adults >= 18 years old - Histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIc (unresectable) or Stage IV (metastatic) and determined to be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive (cohort A) or mutation-negative (cohorts B and C) - Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status of 0 or 1 - Measurable disease by radiographic or physical examination - Adequate organ and marrow function - Willingness to provide consent for biopsies positive or BRAF WT measurable disease and adequate organ and marrow function Exclusion Criteria: - Prior treatment with a BRAF inhibitor or MEK inhibitor - Any prior Grade >= 3 immune-related adverse event while receiving immunotherapy - Active or prior documented autoimmune disease within the past 2 years - History of or current risk for retinal vein occlusion (RVO) or central serous retinopathy (CSR) - History of or current cardiovascular risk including myocardial infarction, >= Class II congestive heart failure, uncontrolled arrhythmias, or refractory hypertension - Active, untreated central nervous system (CNS) metastases - Women who are pregnant or lactating Melanoma Melanoma This is a multicenter, open-label study with a dose escalation phase followed by an expansion phase of durvalumab administered in combination with dabrafenib and trametinib or with trametinib alone in participants with BRAF V600 mutation-positive and WT unresectable or metastatic melanoma, respectively. --- V600E --- --- V600K --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Dose limiting toxicities are defined as any Grade 3 or higher treatment-related (related to any study drug) toxicity that occurs during the DLT evaluation period. Number of participants with DLTs are reported.
Measure: Number of Participants With Dose Limiting Toxicities (DLTs) Time: From first dose of study drug (Day 1) until the planned 3rd dose of durvalumab (Day 29)Description: An adverse event (AE) is any untoward medical occurrence in a participant who received study drug without regard to possibility of causal relationship. Serious adverse event is any AE that resulted in death, life threatening, inpatient hospitalization or prolongation of existing hospitalization, persistent or significant disability or incapacity, is a congenital anomaly/birth defect in offspring of a study participant, is an important medical event that may jeopardize the participant or may require medical intervention. TEAEs are defined as events present at baseline that worsened in intensity after administration of study drug or events absent at baseline that emerged after administration of study drug.
Measure: Number of Participants With Treatment-emergent Adverse Events (TEAEs) and Treatment-emergent Serious Adverse Events (TESAEs) Time: From first dose of study drug (Day 1) up to 90 days after the last dose (up to 4.5 years)Description: Number of participants with abnormal vital signs and physical examinations reported as TEAEs are reported.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Vital Signs and Physical Examinations Reported as TEAEs Time: From first dose of study drug (Day 1) up to 90 days after the last dose (up to 4.5 years)Description: Number of participants with abnormal clinical laboratory parameters reported as TEAEs are reported.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Clinical Laboratory Parameters Reported as TEAEs Time: From first dose of study drug (Day 1) up to 90 days after the last dose (up to 4.5 years)Description: Number of participants with abnormal electrocardiograms (ECGs) and echocardiograms (ECHOs) reported as TEAEs are reported.
Measure: Number of Participants With Abnormal Electrocardiograms (ECGs) and Echocardiograms (ECHOs) Reported as TEAEs Time: From first dose of study drug (Day 1) up to 90 days after the last dose (up to 4.5 years)Description: Objective Response is defined as confirmed complete response (CR) or confirmed partial response (PR) based on Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors version 1.1 (RECIST v1.1). A confirmed CR is defined as two CRs that were separated by at least 28 days. A confirmed PR is defined as two PRs or an un-confirmed PR and an un-confirmed CR that were separated by at least 28 days. A CR is defined as disappearance of all target and non-target lesions, normalization of tumor marker level and any pathological lymph nodes selected as target lesions must have a reduction in short axis to less than 10 mm. A PR is defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the baseline sum diameters.
Measure: Percentage of Participants With Objective Response (OR) Time: From the first dose of study drug until last participant completes 12 months of treatment (assessed up to 4.5 years)Description: Duration of response: Duration from first documentation of OR to first documented PD or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. CR: disappearance of all target and non-target lesions, normalization of tumor marker level and any pathological lymph nodes selected as target lesions must have a reduction in short axis to less than 10 mm. PR: at least a 30% decrease in sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the baseline sum diameters. PD: at least a 20% increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions and an absolute increase of >= 5 mm, taking as reference smallest sum of diameters since treatment started including baseline sum of diameters.
Measure: Duration of Response (DOR) Time: From the first dose of study drug until last participant completes 12 months of treatment (assessed up to 4.5 years)Description: Progression-free Survival is defined as duration from the start of treatment with study drug until the first documented PD or death, whichever comes first. PD: at least a 20% increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions and an absolute increase of >= 5 mm, taking as reference smallest sum of diameters since treatment started including baseline sum of diameters. For participants who are alive and progression-free at the time of data cut-off for analysis, PFS was to be censored at the last tumor assessment date.
Measure: Progression-free Survival (PFS) Time: From the first dose of study drug until last participant completes 12 months of treatment (assessed up to 4.5 years)Description: Overall survival (OS) is measured from the start of treatment until death. For participants who are alive at the end of study or lost to follow-up, OS was censored on the last date when participants are known to be alive.
Measure: Overall Survival Time: From the first dose of study drug until last participant completes 12 months of treatment (assessed up to 4.5 years)Description: Disease control is defined as confirmed CR or PR, or stable disease (SD) that was maintained for >= 12 weeks based on RECIST v1.1. A confirmed CR is defined as two CRs that were separated by at least 28 days. A confirmed PR is defined as two PRs or an un-confirmed PR and an un-confirmed CR that were separated by at least 28 days. CR: disappearance of all target and non-target lesions, normalization of tumor marker level and any pathological lymph nodes selected as target lesions must have a reduction in short axis to less than 10 mm. A PR is defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the baseline sum diameters. A SD is neither sufficient shrinkage to qualify for PR nor sufficient increase to qualify for progressive disease, taking as reference the smallest sum of diameters while on study.
Measure: Percentage of Participants With Disease Control Time: From the first dose of study drug until last participant completes 12 months of treatment (assessed up to 4.5 years)Description: Maximum observed plasma concentration of durvalumab after first dose is reported.
Measure: Maximum Observed Plasma Concentration after First Dose (Cmax, 1st) of Durvalumab Time: Cohorts A and B: End of infusion on Day 1; Cohort C: End of infusion on Day 29Description: Maximum observed plasma concentration of durvalumab at steady state is reported.
Measure: Maximum Observed Plasma Concentration at Steady State (Cmax, ss) of Durvalumab Time: Cohorts A and B: end of infusion on Day 141; Cohort C: end of infusion on Day 169Description: Trough concentration of durvalumab pre-dose at steady state is reported.
Measure: Trough Concentration at Steady State (Ctrough) of Durvalumab Time: Cohorts A and B: Pre-dose on Day 141; Cohort C: Pre-dose on Day 169Description: The number of participants with positive serum antibodies to durvalumab post dosing are reported.
Measure: Number of Participants With Postive Anti-Drug Antibodies (ADA) Titer to Durvalumab Time: Cohorts A and B: Days 1 and 29; Cohort C: Days 29 and 57The goal of this clinical research study is to learn if the combination of 2 drugs dabrafenib and trametinib can help to control melanoma that has or has not spread to the brain. The safety of this drug combination will also be studied. Dabrafenib is designed to block the mutated BRAF protein. This mutation is only found in moles of the skin and in melanoma cells. By blocking the protein, the drug may slow the growth of or kill cancer cells that have the protein. Trametinib is designed to block certain proteins that cause cancer cells to grow and multiply. This may cause the cancer cells to die.
3. BRAF mutation-positive melanoma (i.e., V600E, V600K or V600D) 4. For Cohort A, patients must have easily accessible tumor for a mandatory biopsy. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Overall response rate defined as percentage of subjects with a confirmed complete response (CR) or a partial response (PR) at any time as per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) 1.1 criteria. Clinical responses will be evaluated using RECIST 1.1 criteria after every 2 cycles (8 weeks). Complete Response (CR): Disappearance all lesions; pathological lymph nodes reduction in short axis to <10 mm. Partial Response (PR): >30% decrease in sum diameters of lesions, reference baseline sum diameters. Progressive Disease (PD): >20% increase in sum diameters of lesions, reference smallest sum on study (includes baseline sum if smallest on study); relative increase of 20%, sum must also demonstrate absolute increase of >5 mm; appearance of 1 or > new lesions considered progression). Stable Disease (SD): Neither sufficient shrinkage for PR nor sufficient increase for PD, reference smallest sum diameters while on study.
Measure: Overall Response Rate (ORR) Time: Evaluation every 8 weeks (2 cycles) up to 12 monthsDescription: Clinical responses evaluated using RECIST 1.1 criteria after every 2 cycles (8 weeks). Complete Response (CR): Disappearance all lesions; pathological lymph nodes reduction in short axis to <10 mm. Partial Response (PR): >30% decrease in sum diameters of lesions, reference baseline sum diameters. Progressive Disease (PD): >20% increase in sum diameters of lesions, reference smallest sum on study (includes baseline sum if smallest on study); relative increase of 20%, sum must also demonstrate absolute increase of >5 mm; appearance of 1 or > new lesions considered progression). Stable Disease (SD): Neither sufficient shrinkage for PR nor sufficient increase for PD, reference smallest sum diameters while on study.
Measure: Number of Participants by Response Time: Evaluation every 8 weeks (2 cycles) up to 12 monthsDescription: Duration of response defined for subjects with a confirmed complete response (CR) or partial response (PR), as time from the first documented evidence of a CR or PR until the first documented disease progression or death due to any cause. Progression free survival (PFS) estimated and summarized using the method of Kaplan and Meier.
Measure: Progression-Free Survival (PFS) Time: Evaluation every 8 weeks (2 cycles) up to 12 monthsThe purpose of the phase 1 portion of the study is to determine the maximally tolerated dose (MTD) or recommended dose (RD) and the safety/tolerability of PX-866 in combination vemurafenib in patients with any advanced BRAF-mutant cancer. The purpose of the phase 2 portion of the study is to compare progression free survival (PFS), antitumor activity (response rate), disease control rate (DCR), and the safety and tolerability of PX-866 in combination with vemurafenib vs. vemurafenib alone in patients with advanced BRAF-mutant melanoma at the doses recommended from Phase 1.
Inclusion Criteria: - ≥ 18 years at time of consent - If a sexually active male or a sexually active female of child-bearing potential, agrees to use a highly effective form of contraception (including birth control pills, barrier device, or intrauterine device)from the time of consent 90 days following the last dose of study drug - If female of child-bearing potential, negative pregnancy test - For Phase 1: must have histologically or cytologically-confirmed advanced cancer that is BRAF mutation-positive (V600E or V600K) for which there is no remaining standard therapy with curative potential. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
For Phase 2: must have histologically or cytologically-confirmed BRAF mutation-positive (V600E or V600K) advanced (defined as unresectable Stage IIIC or IV) melanoma that has not been treated with a selective BRAF inhibitor - For Phase 1: must have measurable or non-measurable disease. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
These patients must have undergone appropriate imaging studies and currently be on a stable, lowest possible dose of steroids - History of allergic reactions attributed to compounds of similar chemical or biologic composition to PX-866 or vemurafenib - Uncontrolled intercurrent illness including, but not limited to: ongoing or active infection, symptomatic congestive heart failure, unstable angina pectoris, cardiac arrhythmia, or psychiatric illness/social situations that would limit compliance with study requirements - Uncorrectable electrolyte abnormalities or long QT syndrome - Poorly controlled diabetes mellitus - Pregnant, breastfeeding, or planning to become pregnant - Known to be human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive - Inability to swallow pills - Previous treatment with a phosphatidylinositol-3-kinase (PI-3K) inhibitor - Any other significant medical or psychiatric condition that in the opinion of the investigator renders the patient inadequate for participation Inclusion Criteria: - ≥ 18 years at time of consent - If a sexually active male or a sexually active female of child-bearing potential, agrees to use a highly effective form of contraception (including birth control pills, barrier device, or intrauterine device)from the time of consent 90 days following the last dose of study drug - If female of child-bearing potential, negative pregnancy test - For Phase 1: must have histologically or cytologically-confirmed advanced cancer that is BRAF mutation-positive (V600E or V600K) for which there is no remaining standard therapy with curative potential. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Erdheim-Chester Diseases (ECD) is a very rare non-Langerhans cell histiocytosis of unknown origin and pathogenesis. It has been reported mainly in adult males over the age of 40 years, although cases have been reported in females as well. Children are rarely affected. Mutation of the BRAF gene, specifically BRAFV600E, has been recently identified in 50% of Erdheim Chester lesions in a French cohort. This somatic mutation is believed to be the driver mutation in positive cases. The clinical characteristics of ECD range from asymptomatic to multisystemic involvement; longitudinal progression and natural history are becoming better understood. ECD commonly affects the bones, kidneys, retroperitoneal space, skin and brain. If untreated, the disease progresses rapidly, causing fatal outcomes due to severe lung disease, chronic renal failure, cardiomyopathy and other complications. The diagnosis of ECD relies upon imaging studies and specific pathologic findings in biopsies of affected organs, i.e., fibrosis and infiltration of tissues with foamy histiocytes, lymphocytes, and plasma cells. Immunohistochemistry reveals cells positive for CD68 and CD163 and negative for CD1a, with 20% positivity to S-100. There is no standard treatment for ECD, although chemotherapy, radiation, stem cell transplantion, alpha-interferon, anakinra, imatinib and sirolimus have been proposed. The recent discovery of the BRAFV600E mutation in several ECD patients has opened a new area for treatment options. Vemurafenib, an FDA approved BRAF inhibitor for the treatment of patients with metastatic or unresectable melanoma with the V600E mutation, binds to this form of mutated BRAF causing protein inactivation. The use of vemurafenib in patients with ECD has been reported in 3 patients who experienced remission of the disease, and is currently being studied in the U.S. and Europe as monotherapy. Tumor/disease resistance to vemurafenib has occurred in melanoma and other cancers, although it has not been reported in patients with ECD. In this protocol, we propose to clinically evaluate ECD patients with the BRAFV600E mutation and administer combination therapy with dabrafenib, a BRAFV600E inhibitor, and trametinib, an inhibitor of MEK, downstream of BRAF. Screening for possible contraindications will be made prior to the administration of the first dose. With this trial, we will determine the safety, tolerability, and efficacy of dabrafenib and trametinib in patients with ECD who harbor the BRAFV600E mutation. Dabrafenib 150mg will be given twice daily p.o.; trametinib 2mg will be given once daily p.o. Patients will be seen 1 week, 1 month, 2 months, 4 months, and 6 months, 8 months, 10 months and 12 months to complete a oneyear trial.
Affected tissue must harbor the BRAF V600E or V600K mutation. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
This is an open-label, multi-center, dose-finding Phase 1 study that will enroll subjects at least 18 years old with unresectable or metastatic melanoma and BRAF V600 mutations. The primary objective of the study is to describe the safety for the doublet therapy (dabrafenib and ipilimumab) and the triplet therapy (dabrafenib/trametinib and ipilimumab). Preliminary efficacy data will also be collected. Subjects will be assigned to receive either the doublet combination (dabrafenib and ipilimumab) or the triplet combination (dabrafenib, trametinib, and ipilimumab). Subjects will be enrolled to dose-finding cohorts in the doublet combination (dabrafenib + ipilimumab) in a sequential 3+3 fashion. Following establishment of a dose for the doublet combination, an expansion cohort will be opened. At the same time, enrollment to dose finding cohorts for the triplet combination (dabrafenib + trametinib + ipilimumab) will begin in a sequential 6+6 fashion. Enrollment into triplet cohorts will take priority when both the doublet expansion arm and the triplet dose-finding arm are open for enrollment at the same time. Approximately 9-24 subjects will be enrolled to the dose finding portion of the study. Approximately 30 subjects will be enrolled to doublet expansion cohort and 30 subjects will be enrolled in the triplet expansion cohort. A two-week run-in period without ipilimumab will be followed by 4 intravenous doses of ipilimumab at the recommended dose and schedule. Oral daily dosing of dabrafenib or dabrafenib + trametinib will continue from the two-week run-in, through combination with ipilimumab, and post-ipilimumab until no longer of clinical benefit, in the opinion of the treating physician, or until unacceptable AE or death
PK samples have a +/-30 minute window for collection.. Inclusion Criteria: - Signed written informed consent - Males and females >= 18 years of age - Histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIc (unresectable) or Stage IV (metastatic), and determined to be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive by the local laboratory. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Patients with active autoimmune disease or a history of autoimmune disease other than those mentioned above must be approved by the GSK medical monitor - Active pneumonitis or interstitial lung disease - Lactating female - History of another malignancy (Exception: Subjects who have been disease-free for 3 years, or subjects with a history of completely resected non-melanoma skin cancer or successfully treated in situ carcinoma are eligible) - Any serious and/or unstable pre-existing medical, psychiatric disorder or other conditions that could interfere with subject's safety, obtaining informed consent or compliance to the study procedures - Any prohibited medication - Administration of an investigational study treatment within 28 days or 5 half-lives, whichever is longer, preceding the first dose of study treatment(s) in this study - Known immediate or delayed hypersensitivity reaction or idiosyncrasy to drugs chemically related to the study treatments, their excipients, and/or dimethyl sulfoxide (DMSO) - Unwillingness or inability to follow the procedures outlined in the protocol Inclusion Criteria: - Signed written informed consent - Males and females >= 18 years of age - Histologically confirmed cutaneous melanoma that is either Stage IIIc (unresectable) or Stage IV (metastatic), and determined to be BRAF V600E or V600K mutation-positive by the local laboratory. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: AEs will be collected from the time the first dose of study treatment is administered until 30 days following discontinuation of study treatment
Measure: Number of subjects with Adverse Events (AEs) to assess the safety of dabrafenib +/- trametinib when administered in combination with ipilimumab Time: Follow-up up to 6 months after last subject last doseDescription: Hematology, clinical chemistry, and urinalysis parameters to be tested. Vital sign measurements will include systolic and diastolic blood pressure, temperature, respiration rate and pulse rate. A complete physical examination will be performed at screening and every 12 months thereafter, as well as whenever clinically indicated.A brief physical examination will be performed every 3 or 4 weeks
Measure: Changes in laboratory values, vital signs, and physical examinations as a measure of safety of dabrafenib +/- trametinib when administered in combination with ipilimumab Time: Follow-up up to 6 months after last subject last doseDescription: All subjects will be evaluated for dose-limiting toxicity (DLT) from the first dose of ipilimumab until 1 week after the third dose of ipilimumab to determine a recommended dose for dabrafenib +/- trametinib when administered in combination with ipilimumab
Measure: Number of subjects with AEs and changes in laboratory values, vital signs, and physical examinations to determine a recommended dose for dabrafenib +/- trametinib when administered in combination with ipilimumab Time: Up to approximately Week 9 in doublet and triplet armDescription: Overall Response will be determined using Modified immune-related response criteria (irRC)
Measure: Overall response rate Time: Follow-up up to 6 months after last subject last doseDescription: Four blood samples will be collected on the day of first dose of ipilimumab (Cycle 1) - Study Day 15. One blood sample will be obtained on the day of the second and third dose of ipilimumab (Cycles 2 and 3) - Study Days 36 and 57. Subjects will be instructed to withhold their morning dose until after they arrive at the clinic. Ipilimumab infusion should start as soon as possible after oral dosing of dabrafenib/trametinib. PK samples have a +/-30 minute window for collection.
Measure: Concentrations of trametinib, dabrafenib and its metabolites (GSK2285403, GSK2298683, and GSK2167542) in the triplet arm and dabrafenib and its metabolites in the doublet arm Time: Day 15 (pre-dose,1, 2, and 4 hours post-dose); Day 36 and Day 57 (pre-dose only) for doublet and triplet armsThis research study is studying a combination of targeted therapies as a possible treatment for advanced melanoma that was found to have a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K genetic mutation The interventions involved in this study are: - LY3022855 - Vemurafenib - Cobimetinib
LY3022855 With BRAF/MEK Inhibition in Patients With Melanoma This research study is studying a combination of targeted therapies as a possible treatment for advanced melanoma that was found to have a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K genetic mutation The interventions involved in this study are: - LY3022855 - Vemurafenib - Cobimetinib Progression Free Survival. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Disappearance of all target lesions.. Inclusion Criteria: - For enrollment to the phase I portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or any CLIA-certified method) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
- For enrollment to the phase II portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or any CLIA-certified method) and cannot have received prior BRAF or MEK inhibitor therapy. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Inclusion Criteria: - For enrollment to the phase I portion: participants must have a histologically confirmed melanoma with a BRAF V600E or BRAF V600K mutation (identified via NextGen sequencing using the DFCI/BWH OncoPanel or any CLIA-certified method) that is metastatic or unresectable and for which standard curative measures do not exist or are no longer effective. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Time from initiation of study therapy until documentation of disease progression by RECIST criteria
Measure: Progression Free Survival Time: 2 yearsDescription: Ability to give these three medications in combination without a dose limiting side effect. Assessment of side effects that do occur
Measure: Side effects from therapy Time: 2 yearsDescription: Rate of patients with a complete response or partial response as assessed by RECIST criteria
Measure: Overall Response Rate Time: 2 yearsDescription: At least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions.
Measure: Partial Response Rate Time: 2 yearsDescription: Disease that is less than a 30% decrease or 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of the target lesions.
Measure: Stable Disease Time: 2 yearsDescription: At least a 20% increase in the sum of the diameters of target lesions.
Measure: Progressive Disease Time: 2 yearsDescription: Time from initiation of study therapy to death.
Measure: Overall Survival Time: 2 yearsDescription: Disappearance of all target lesions.
Measure: Complete response Time: 2 yearsThis study will evaluate the safety and disease control rate of the combination of pembrolizumab plus low-dose interleukin-2 in patients who have either advanced melanoma or renal cell cancer.
If the melanoma expresses a BRAF mutation of V600E, V600K, or V600R patient must have received and progressed through a BRAF inhibitor or have failed that therapy due to toxicity. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Obtain preliminary data on the safety of LD-IL2 with pembrolizumab
Measure: Safety: adverse event profile Time: up to 90 days post-treatmentDescription: Estimate the disease control rate (CR+PR+SD by RECIST 1.1) among candidate patients with metastatic melanoma treated with pembrolizumab and LD-IL2 and to determine whether disease control is significantly improved. SD for 6 months or more will be considered SD for the purpose of this assessment.
Measure: Disease control rate: melanoma Time: baseline and every 9 weeks (up to week 104)Description: Estimate the disease control rate (CR+PR+SD by RECIST 1.1) among patients with metastatic renal cell cancer treated with pembrolizumab and LD-IL2 and to determine whether disease control is significantly improved. SD for 6 months or more will be considered SD for the purpose of this assessment.
Measure: Disease control rate: renal cell cancer Time: baseline and every 9 weeks (up to week 104)Description: Estimate progression-free survival defined as the duration of time from first response (SD/PR/CR) to time of recurrence/progression or death from any cause, whichever occurs first
Measure: Progression free survival: metastatic melanoma Time: From first response (SD/PR/CR) to time of recurrence/progression or death from any cause, whichever occurs first, assessed for an estimated total of 120 months.Description: Estimate progression-free survival defined as the duration of time from first response (SD/PR/CR) to time of recurrence/progression or death from any cause, whichever occurs first
Measure: Progression free survival: renal cell cancer Time: From first response (SD/PR/CR) to time of recurrence/progression or death from any cause, whichever occurs first, assessed for an estimated total of 120 months.The purpose of this research study is to learn about the safety and effectiveness of the study drug, PF-06688992. Before this study, PF-06688992 has never been given to people. PF-06688992 is a targeted therapy for people with cancer. The investigators linked a chemotherapy drug to an antibody (protein found in the blood). The antibody will connect to GD3 which is found on most melanomas but on very few other cells in the body. The investigators hope that in this way, it will deliver this chemotherapy directly to the melanoma and not to normal tissues.
- Patients whose melanomas harbor a BRAF V600E or V600K mutation must have progressed on a RAF inhibitor. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: using a Bayesian dose escalation scheme
Measure: the Recommended Phase 2 Dose Time: 1 yearMEK113583 is a Phase II open-label, multi-site study to investigate the objective response rate, safety, and pharmacokinetics of GSK1120212 in subjects with BRAF mutation-positive melanoma who were previously treated with or without a BRAF inhibitor. GSK1120212 is a potent and highly selective inhibitor of MEK activation and kinase activity.
The number of participants with best confirmed response was analyzed for the following subgroups of participants previously treated with standard therapy but not BRAF inhibitors: (1) participants with prior (before the start of this study) brain metastases (mets); (2) participants without prior brain mets; (3) participants with BRAF mutation V600E; (4) participants with BRAF mutation V600E and no prior brain mets; and (5) participants with BRAF mutation V600K. --- V600E --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
PFS was analyzed for the following subgroups of participants previously treated with standard therapy but not BRAF inhibitors: (1) participants with prior (before the start of this study) brain metastases (mets); (2) participants without prior brain mets; (3) participants with BRAF mutation V600E; (4) participants with BRAF mutation V600E and no prior brain mets; and (5) participants with BRAF mutation V600K. --- V600E --- --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
- Documented positive BRAF mutation (V600E, V600K, or V600D). --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: Best confirmed response was assessed by the Investigator per Response Evaluation Criteria in Solid Tumors (RECIST) version 1.1. Best response was measured either as a complete response (CR), defined as the disappearance of all target lesions and pathological lymph nodes <10 millimeters (mm), or a partial response (PR), defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions. To be assigned a status of confirmed CR or PR, a confirmatory disease assessment was required no less than 28 days after the criteria for response were first met.
Measure: Number of Participants With Best Confirmed Response Time: From Baseline (Day 1) until the time of the first documented evidence of a confirmed complete response or partial response (up to approximately 25 weeks)Description: The number of participants with best confirmed response was analyzed for the following subgroups of participants previously treated with standard therapy but not BRAF inhibitors: (1) participants with prior (before the start of this study) brain metastases (mets); (2) participants without prior brain mets; (3) participants with BRAF mutation V600E; (4) participants with BRAF mutation V600E and no prior brain mets; and (5) participants with BRAF mutation V600K. Objective response was assessed per RECIST version 1.1. Objective response was measured either as CR, defined as the disappearance of all target lesions and pathological lymph nodes <10 mm, or PR, defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions. To be assigned a status of confirmed CR or PR, a confirmatory disease assessment was required no less than 28 days after the criteria for response were first met. Brain metastasis is a cancer that has spread to the brain from another location of the body.
Measure: Number of Participants With Best Confirmed Response in the Indicated Subgroups of Participants Previously Treated With Standard Therapy But Not BRAF Inhibitors Time: From Baseline (Day 1) until the time of the first documented evidence of a confirmed CR or PR (up to approximately 25 weeks)Description: An interim analysis was performed using data collected approximately 12 and 13 weeks after the 30th participant was enrolled in the prior BRAF inhibitor and prior standard therapy groups, respectively. The best unconfirmed response by the investigator per RECIST version 1.1 was assessed. The study design permitted stopping the study for futility if <3 best confirmed responses were observed in the first 30 participants of each treatment arm after completing the first post-dose assessment at Week 8. Best response was measured as either a CR, defined as the disappearance of all target lesions and pathological lymph nodes <10 millimeters, or a PR, defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions.
Measure: Number of Participants With Best Unconfirmed Response at the Time of the Interim Analysis (Week 8) Time: Week 8Description: Human plasma samples were analyzed for trametinib using a validated analytical method.
Measure: Mean Plasma Concentrations Time: Day 15, pre-dose, 0.5-2 hours (hrs) post-dose, 2-4 hrs post-dose, and 4-8 hrs post-dose; Week 4, pre-dose; Week 8, pre-dose; Week 12, pre-doseDescription: An AE is defined as any untoward medical occurrence in a subject or clinical investigation subject, temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product, whether or not considered to be related to the medicinal product. AE and serious AE (SAE) data were collected from the start of the investigational product and continued until the End of Treatment Visit. Refer to the general Adverse AE/SAE module for a complete list of AEs and SAEs.
Measure: Number of Participants With Any Adverse Event (AE) Time: From the date of the first dose of study medication until 28 days after the last dose (up to 477 days)Description: Duration of tumor response is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of a CR or PR to disease progression (at least a 20 percent increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum on study; unequivocal progression of non-target lesions, or the appearance of a new lesion) or death due to any cause. No participants who were previously treated with BRAF inhibitors had a CR, defined as the disappearance of all target lesions and pathological lymph nodes <10 millimeters, or a PR, defined as at least a 30% decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions; thus, no duration of response data can be presented.
Measure: Duration of Tumor Response Time: From the time of the first documented evidence of a confirmed CR or PR until disease progression or death due to any cause (up to approximately 40 weeks)Description: PFS is defined as the interval between the treatment start date and the earliest date of disease progression (at least a 20 percent increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum on study; unequivocal progression of non-target lesions, or the appearance of a new lesion) or death due to any cause, whichever occurred first. Participants who had not progressed or died were censored at the date of the last adequate tumor assessment at the time of the cut-off.
Measure: Progression-free Survival (PFS) Time: Baseline (Day 1) until the time of disease progression or death due to any cause (up to approximately 57 weeks)Description: PFS was analyzed for the following subgroups of participants previously treated with standard therapy but not BRAF inhibitors: (1) participants with prior (before the start of this study) brain metastases (mets); (2) participants without prior brain mets; (3) participants with BRAF mutation V600E; (4) participants with BRAF mutation V600E and no prior brain mets; and (5) participants with BRAF mutation V600K. Per RECIST version 1.1, PFS is defined as the interval between the treatment start date and the earliest date of disease progression (at least a 20 percent increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions, taking as reference the smallest sum on study; unequivocal progression of non-target lesions, or the appearance of a new lesion) or death due to any cause, whichever occurred earliest. Brain metastasis is a cancer that has spread to the brain from another location of the body.
Measure: PFS in the Indicated Subgroups of Participants Previously Treated With Standard Therapy But Not BRAF Inhibitors Time: Baseline (Day 1) until the time of disease progression or death due to any cause (up to approximately 57 weeks)Description: Overall survival is defined as the time from the treatment start date until death due to any cause. Participants who had not died were censored at the date of the last adequate tumor assessment at the time of the cut-off.
Measure: Overall Survival Time: Baseline (Day 1) until death due to any cause (up to 134 weeks)Description: Overall survival (defined as the time from the treatment start date until death due to any cause) data data are presented as the number of participants who were alive 6 months, 12 months and 24 months after Baseline. Participants who had not died were censored at the date of the last adequate tumor assessment at the time of the cut-off.
Measure: Number of Participants Who Survived Until 6 Months, 12 Months and 24 Months From Baseline Time: Month 6, Month 12 and Month 24Description: Tumor progression was assessed as disease progression (DP), defined as at least a 20 percent increase in the sum of diameters of target lesions (representative of all involved organs), taking as reference the smallest sum on study; unequivocal progression of non-target lesions; or the appearance of a new lesion. Because melanoma often progresses to the brain/central nervous system (CNS) and this study enrolled approximately 20% participants with prior brain metastases, tumor progression in the brain/CNS was summarized. Paticipants could have been included in more than one category.
Measure: Number of Participants With Tumor Progression Time: Baseline (Day 1) until tumor progression (up to approximately 57 weeks)To evaluate the best sequencing approach with the combination of target agents (LGX818 plus MEK162) and the combination of immunomodulatory antibodies (ipilimumab plus nivolumab) in patients with metastatic melanoma and BRAF V600 mutation.
4. Measurable disease by computed tomography (CT) or Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) per RECIST 1.1 criteria; 5. Presence of BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in tumor tissue prior to enrollment; 6. Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status (PS) 0 or 1; 7. Tumor tissue from an unresectable or metastatic site of disease must be provided for biomarker analyses. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: OS is defined as the time between the date of randomization and the date of death due to any cause. OS will be censored on the last date a subject was known to be alive. OS data will be collected continuously while subjects are on study medication and every 3 months via in-person or phone contact after discontinuation of study medication
Measure: Overall Survival Time: Patients enrolled will receive study medication until disease progression, unaccettable toxicity, withdrawal of consent or death, whichever comes first, assested up to 24 monthDescription: PFS is defined as the time between the date of randomization and the first date of documented progression, as determined by the investigator, or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first. Tumor responses will be assessed by the Investigator according to RECIST Criteria (version 1.1)
Measure: Total Progression free survival Time: Baseline (Day 1), every 6 weeks until second disease progression is documented (Approximately around 2 years)Description: Percentage of patients alive at 2 and 3 years will be reported using Wilson score intervals.
Measure: Percentage of patients alive at 2 and 3 years; Time: Time Frame: at 24^ and 36^ monthDescription: It will be calculated as the percentage of ITT population patients who have a CR o o PR before any evidence of progression (as defined by RECIST).
Measure: Best overall response rate (BORR); Time: Time Frame: up to 24 monthsDescription: It will be calculated as the percentage of ITT population patients who have a CR o o PR before any evidence of progression (as defined by RECIST).
Measure: Duration of response (DoR); Time: Time Frame: up to 24 monthsDescription: Safety and tolerability will be assessed in terms od AEs, laboratory data, ECG data, vitals signs and weight, which will be collected for all patients. AEs (both in terms od MedDRA preferred terms and CTCAE grade), laboratory data, ECG data, vital signs and weight will be listes individually by patient and summarized by treatment received. ECG changes will be summarized for each treatment group.
Measure: Toxicity of the investigational medicinal products (IMPs). Time: Time Frame: up to 24 monthsDescription: Changes from baseline in EQ-5D and QLQ-C30 total score will be summarized by means of descriptive statistical methods.
Measure: Quality of life and general health Time: Time Frame: up to 24 monthsDescription: 3 years PFS rate; calculated from the date of randomization;
Measure: 3 years PFS rate Time: Time Frame: up to 36 monthsBRF113710 is a Phase II, single-arm, open-label study to assess the efficacy, safety, and tolerability of GSK2118436 administered twice daily as a single agent in subjects with BRAF mutant metastatic melanoma. Subjects will receive 150 mg of GSK2118436 twice daily and continue on treatment until disease progression, death, or unacceptable adverse event.
The analysis was performed on Primary efficacy Population which comprised of all participants who received at least one dose of GSK2118436 (All Treated Participants Population) and had a BRAF V600E mutation.. Number of Participants With a Best Overall Response of CR or PR as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
The analysis was performed on Secondary efficacy analysis Population which comprised of all participants who received at least one dose of GSK2118436 (All Treated Participants Population) and had a BRAF V600K mutation.. Progression-free Survival (PFS) as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600E Mutation. --- V600K ---
For participants who did not have a documented date of progression or death, PFS was censored at the date of last adequate assessment.. Progression-free Survival (PFS) as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation. --- V600K ---
The analysis was performed on Primary efficacy Population and only those participants who had a CR or PR were analyzed.. Duration of Response as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation. --- V600K ---
Overall survival was estimated using kaplan-Meier model and median and 95 percent CI was presented.. Overall Survival for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation. --- V600K ---
One participant out of the 92 participants (76 BRAF V600E patients + 16 BRAF V600K patients) did not have SBP and DBP collected after baseline.. Number of Participants With Change From Baseline in Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) Levels. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: A participant was defined as a responder if he/she achieved either a CR (the disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph nodes must be <10 millimeter (mm) in the short axis.) or PR (at least a 30 percent decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]). To be assigned a status of PR or CR, a confirmatory disease assessment was required at Week 12 if an initial response was seen at the Week 6 scan. Initial responses (CR/PR) that occured at Week 12 or later were required to be confirmed not less than 4 weeks and not more than 6 weeks after the criteria for response were first met. The analysis was performed on Primary efficacy Population which comprised of all participants who received at least one dose of GSK2118436 (All Treated Participants Population) and had a BRAF V600E mutation.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Best Overall Response of Confirmed Complete Response (CR) or Partial Response (PR) as Assessed by the Investigator for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600E Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: A participant was defined as a responder if he/she achieved either a CR (the disappearance of all target lesions. Any pathological lymph nodes must be <10 mm in the short axis.) or PR (at least a 30 percent decrease in the sum of the diameters of target lesions, taking as a reference, the Baseline sum of the diameters [e.g., percent change from Baseline]). To be assigned a status of PR or CR, a confirmatory disease assessment had to have been performed at Week 12 if an initial response was seen at the Week 6 scan. Initial responses (CR/PR) that occured at Week 12 or later should have been confirmed not less than 4 weeks and not more than 6 weeks after the criteria for response were first met. The analysis was performed on Secondary efficacy analysis Population which comprised of all participants who received at least one dose of GSK2118436 (All Treated Participants Population) and had a BRAF V600K mutation.
Measure: Number of Participants With a Best Overall Response of CR or PR as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: PFS is defined as the interval between the first dose of study medication and the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause. The length of this interval is estimated as the date of death or progression minus date of first dose plus 1 day. Kaplan-Meier model was used to estimate the median and 95 percent confidence interval (CI). For participants who received subsequent anti-cancer therapy prior to the date of documented progression or death, PFS was censored at the last adequate assessment. For participants who did not have a documented date of progression or death, PFS was censored at the date of last adequate assessment.
Measure: Progression-free Survival (PFS) as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600E Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: PFS is defined as the interval between the first dose of study medication and the earliest date of disease progression or death due to any cause. The length of this interval is estimated as the date of death or progression minus date of first dose plus 1 day. Kaplan-Meier model was used to estimate the median and 95 percent CI. For participants who received subsequent anti-cancer therapy prior to the date of documented progression or death, PFS was censored at the last adequate assessment. For participants who did not have a documented date of progression or death, PFS was censored at the date of last adequate assessment.
Measure: Progression-free Survival (PFS) as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Duration of response for participants with either a CR or PR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of a PR or CR until the first documented sign of disease progression or death due to any cause. Duration of response was estimated using Kaplan-Meier model and the median and 95 percent CI was presented. The analysis was performed on Primary efficacy Population and only those participants who had a CR or PR were analyzed.
Measure: Duration of Response as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600E Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Duration of response for participants with either a CR or PR is defined as the time from the first documented evidence of a PR or CR until the first documented sign of disease progression or death due to any cause. Duration of response was estimated using Kaplan-Meier model and the median and 95 percent CI was presented. The analysis was performed on Secondary efficacy Population and only those participants who had a CR or PR were analyzed.
Measure: Duration of Response as Assessed by the Investigator and an Independent Reviewer for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Overall survival is defined as the time from the first dose of study medication until death due to any cause. For participants who did not die, overall survival was censored at the date of last contact. Overall survival was estimated using kaplan-Meier model and median and 95 percent CI was presented.
Measure: Overall Survival for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600E Mutation Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Overall survival is defined as the time from the first dose of study medication until death due to any cause. For participants who did not die, overall survival was censored at the date of last contact. Overall survival was estimated using Kaplan-Meier model and median and 95 percent CI was presented.
Measure: Overall Survival for Participants Who Had a BRAF V600K Mutation Time: From the first dose to death due to any cause (up to 60 months)Description: An AE is any untoward medical occurrence in a clinical investigation participant, temporally associated with the use of a medicinal product, whether or not considered related to the medicinal product. AEs including systemic allergic and non-allergic reactions as well as local site injection-related reactions were counted throughout treatment phase and follow up phase. Systemic allergic reactions included facial paralysis, flushing, hypersensitivity and rash pruritic. Injection related reactions were considered as systemic non-allergic reactions. Local site reactions included injection site bruising, erythema, pain and reaction. The analysis was performed on All treated Population which comprised of all participants that receive at least one dose of dabrafenib.
Measure: Number of Participants With AEs and Serious Adverse Events (SAEs) Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Blood samples were collected from participants for evaluation of change from Baseline in toxicity grades in clinical chemistry and hematology parameters. The clinical chemistry parameters included alkaline phosphatase, Alanine amino transferase (ALT), Aspartate amino transferase (AST), total bilirubin, creatinine, glucose, potassium, magnesium, sodium and phosphorus. The hematology parameters included hemoglobin, total neutrophils, platelets and white blood cells (WBC). Baseline was defined as the most recent non-missing value prior to the first dose of study treatment. The change from Baseline was calculated as visit value minus Baseline value and was presented in the form of worst case post-baseline value which was the maximum toxicity grade for a participant after the first dose of study drug over the treatment period. Only those participants with data available at the specified data points were analyzed (represented by n=X in the category titles).
Measure: Number of Participants With Change From Baseline in Clinical Chemistry and Hematology Toxicity Grades Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Number of participants with change from Baseline in temperature and pulse rate were evaluated from the first dose of study treatment till discontinuation due to any reason. Change from Baseline in worst-case post Baseline value was presented as decrease to <=35, change to normal or no change and increase to >=38. Baseline was defined as the most recent non-missing value prior to the first dose of study treatment. The change from Baseline was calculated as visit value minus Baseline value and was presented in the form of worst case post-baseline value which was the maximum toxicity grade for a participant after the first dose of study drug over the treatment period.
Measure: Number of Participants With Change From Baseline in Temperature and Pulse Rate Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: Number of participants with increase from Baseline in SBP and DBP were evaluated from the first dose of study treatment till discontinuation due to any reason. Change from Baseline in worst-case post Baseline value was presented as any increase to >=80 and increase to >=100 for DBP and as any increase to >=120 and increase to >=160 for SBP. Baseline was defined as the most recent non-missing value prior to the first dose of study treatment. The change from Baseline was calculated as visit value minus Baseline value and was presented in the form of worst-case post Baseline value which was the maximum toxicity grade for a participant after the first dose of study drug over the treatment period. One participant out of the 92 participants (76 BRAF V600E patients + 16 BRAF V600K patients) did not have SBP and DBP collected after baseline.
Measure: Number of Participants With Increase From Baseline in Systolic Blood Pressure (SBP) and Diastolic Blood Pressure (DBP) Time: Up to 60 monthsDescription: LVEF was defined as the percentage of blood pumped out of the left ventricle. Change from Baseline in worst-case post Baseline was presented as no change or any increase and any decrease values. Baseline was defined as the most recent non-missing value prior to the first dose of study treatment. The change from Baseline was calculated as visit value minus Baseline value and was presented in the form of worst-case post Baseline value which was the maximum toxicity grade for a participant after the first dose of study drug over the treatment period.
Measure: Number of Participants With Change From Baseline in Left Ventricular Ejection Fraction (LVEF) Levels Time: Up to 60 monthsThis is a randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled, Phase 3 study to compare the efficacy, safety, and tolerability of encorafenib and binimetinib plus pembrolizumab (Triplet Arm) versus placebo plus pembrolizumab (Control Arm) in participants with metastatic or unresectable locally advanced BRAF V600E/K mutation-positive melanoma.
- ECOG performance status 0 or 1. - Documented evidence of a BRAF V600E or V600K mutation in melanoma tumor tissue as previously determined by either PCR or NGS-based local laboratory assay (eg, US FDA-approved test, CE-marked [European conformity] in vitro diagnostic in EU countries, or equivalent), obtained during the course of normal clinical care, in a CLIA- or similarly certified laboratory. --- V600E --- --- V600K ---
Description: A DLT is defined as any adverse event or laboratory value that is assessed as unrelated to disease, disease progression, intercurrent illness or concomitant medications/therapies occurring within the first 2 cycles of treatment.
Measure: Safety Lead In (SLI): Incidence of Dose Limiting Toxicities (DLTs) Time: First 2 Cycles of Treatment (cycles are 21 days)Description: PFS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the first date of documented disease progression as determined by BICR assessment per RECIST 1.1 or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first.
Measure: Phase 3: Progression Free Survival (PFS) by Blinded Independent Central Review (BICR) Time: Time from the date of randomization to the date of first documented disease progression, as determined by BICR assessment per RECIST v1.1, or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first (approximately every 9 weeks for 24 months)Description: AEs, laboratory parameters, vital signs and cardiac abnormalities will be graded according to the National Cancer Institute [NCI] Common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events [CTCAE], version 4.03).
Measure: Safety Lead in (SLI) and Phase 3: Incidence and severity of Adverse Events (AEs) and changes in clinical laboratory parameters, vital signs, and cardiac assessments. Time: Time from first dose of study intervention through 28 days after the last dose of study intervention.Description: ORR is defined as the proportion of participants with a confirmed BOR of either CR or PR, as determined by BICR and investigator assessment per RECIST v1.1
Measure: Safety Lead in (SLI) and Phase 3: Objective Response Rate (ORR) Time: Time from the date after the first dose of first dose (SLI) or the date of randomization (Phase 3) until documented PD, or start of subsequent anticancer therapy (approximately every 9 weeks).Description: DCR is defined as the proportion of participants with a confirmed BOR of CR, PR or SD, as determined by BICR and investigator assessment per RECIST v1.1.
Measure: Safety Lead in (SLI) and Phase 3: Disease Control Rate (DCR) Time: Time from the date after the first dose of first dose (SLI) or the date of randomization (Phase 3) until documented PD, or start of subsequent anticancer therapy (approximately every 9 weeks)Description: TTR is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of first documented response (CR or PR), as determined by BICR and investigator or assessment per RECIST v1.1.
Measure: Safety Lead in (SLI) and Phase 3: Time to Response (TTR) Time: Time from the date of first dose to the date of first documented response (CR or PR), as determined by investigator assessment per RECIST v1 (approximately every 9 weeks)Description: OS is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of death due to any cause
Measure: Phase 3: Overall Survival (OS) Time: Time from the date of randomization to the date of death due to any cause.Description: PFS by investigator is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the first date of documented disease progression as determined by investigator assessment per RECIST 1.1 or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first.
Measure: Phase 3: Progression Free Survival (PFS) by Investigator Time: The time from the date of randomization to the date of first documented disease progression, as determined by investigator assessment per RECIST v1.1, or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first (approximately every 9 weeks)Description: DOR is defined as the time from the date of first documented response to the date of first documented disease progression, as determined by BICR and investigator assessment or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first.
Measure: Phase 3: Duration of Response (DOR) Time: Time from date of first documented response (CR or PR) to the date of first documented disease progression, as determined by BICR and investigator assessment per RECIST v1.1, or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first (approximately every 9 weeks)Description: PFS2 is defined as the time from the date of randomization to the date of second objective disease progression, as determined by investigator assessment per RECIST v1.1, or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first.
Measure: Phase 3: Progression Free Survival 2 (PFS2) Time: The time from the date of randomization to the date of second objective disease progression, as determined by investigator assessment per RECIST v1.1, or death due to any cause, whichever occurs first (approximately every 9 weeks)Description: To measure plasma concentrations of encorafenib and its metabolite (LHY746), and binimetinib and its metabolite (AR00426032)
Measure: Safety Lead in (SLI): Plasma concentration-time profiles and Pharmacokinetic (PK) parameter estimates for encorafenib and binimetinib. Time: Cycle 2, Day 1Description: To measure the plasma concentrations of encorafenib and its metabolite (LHY746), and binimetinib and its metabolite (AR00426032)
Measure: Phase 3: Plasma concentrations of encorafenib and binimetinib. Time: Cycle 1 Day 1, Cycle 2 Day 1, Cycle 3 Day 1, Cycle 4 Day 1 (Each Cycle is 21 days)Description: EORTC QLQ-30 includes 5 functional scales (physical, role, emotional, cognitive and social functioning), 3 symptom scales (fatigue, nausea/vomiting, and pain), 6 single items (dyspnea, insomnia, appetite loss, constipation, diarrhea and financial impact) and a global health status/Quality of Life scale
Measure: Phase 3: European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer Quality of Life Questionnaire-Core 30 (EORTC QLQ-C30): change from baseline in the global health status/QoL score. Time: Day 1 of every 3 cycles: C4D1, C7D1, C10D1, etc. for the first 24 months and then Day 1 of every 4 cycles after 24 monthsDescription: The FACT-M is a melanoma-specific quality of life questionnaire that is composed of items from the Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy-General (FACT-G) questionnaire, melanoma-specific items, and items related to melanoma surgery
Measure: Phase 3: Change from baseline in Functional Assessment of Cancer Therapy-Melanoma (FACT-M) subscale score. Time: Day 1 of every 3 cycles: C4D1, C7D1, C10D1, etc. for the first 24 months and then Day 1 of every 4 cycles after 24 monthsDescription: The EQ-5D-5L is a standardized measure of health utility that provides a single index value of health status and contains 1 item for each of 5 dimensions of HRQoL (ie, mobility, self-care, usual activities, pain or discomfort, and anxiety or depression).
Measure: Phase 3: Change from baseline in 5-level EuroQol-5D (EQ-5D-5L) index score and visual analog scale (VAS) Time: Day 1 of every 3 cycles: C4D1, C7D1, C10D1, etc. for the first 24 months and then Day 1 of every 4 cycles after 24 monthsDescription: The PGIS is a single 1-item questionnaire designed to assess participant's overall impression of disease severity at a given point in time by using a 4-point Likert scale that ranges from (1) = "none (no symptoms)" to (4) = "severe".
Measure: Phase 3: Change from baseline in Patient Global Impression of Severity (PGIS) score Time: Day 1 of every 3 cycles: C4D1, C7D1, C10D1, etc. for the first 24 months and then Day 1 of every 4 cycles after 24 monthsDescription: The PGIC is a single-item questionnaire designed to assess the participant's overall sense of whether there has been a change since starting treatment as rated on a 5-point Likert scale anchored by (1) "much better" to (5) "much worse", with (4) = "no change"
Measure: Phase 3: Patient Global Impression of Change (PGIC) score Time: Day 1 of every 3 cycles: C4D1, C7D1, C10D1, etc. for the first 24 months and then Day 1 of every 4 cycles after 24 months